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Refer to Prob. 7.11 (and use the result of Prob. 5.42): How long does is take a falling circular ring (radius a, mass m, resistance R) to cross the bottom of the magnetic field B, at its (changing) terminal velocity?

Short Answer

Expert verified

The time taken by the loop to attain the terminal velocity is 1ln(vtvtv).

Step by step solution

01

Write the given data from the question.

The radius circular ring is a.

The mass of circular ring m.

The resistance of circular ring is R.

02

Determine the formula to calculate the time taken by the falling the circular ring to attain the terminal velocity.

The expression to calculate the emf induced in the plate is given as follows.

E=Blv鈥︹. (1)

Here,B is the magnetic field,l is the length of the segment of the magnetic loop.

The expression to calculate the induced emf in terms of current is given as follows.

E=IR 鈥︹. (2)

Here, Iis the current.

The expression to calculate the force is given as follows.

F=BIl 鈥︹. (3)

03

Calculate the time taken by the falling the circular ring to attain the terminal velocity.

Calculate the expression for the current

From the equations (1) and (2).

IR=BlvI=BlvR

Calculate the upward force acting on the loop.

Substitute BlvRfor Iinto equation (3).

F=B(BlvR)lF=B2l2vR

The upward force, opposed by the gravitational force acting downward.

Fnet=FgFmdvdt=mgB2l2vRdvdt=gB2l2mRv

Let assume=B2l2mR

dvdt=gvdvgv=dt

Integrate both the sides of the above equation.

dvgv=dt

Let assume

gv=udv=dudv=du

Now solve as,

duu=dtdt=duut=lnulnAt=ln(uA)

Solve further as,

u=Aet

Substitutegtfor uinto above equation.

gv=Aet 鈥︹. (4)

At ,t=0,v=0

g(0)=Ae(0)g0=AaA=g

Substitute gfor Ainto equation (4).

gv=getv=g(1et)v=g(1et)

Substitute B2l2mRforinto above equation.

v=gB2l2mR(1et)v=gmRB2l2(1et) 鈥︹. (5)

When the loop moves with the internal velocity then the force is balanced by the gravitational force.

mg=B2l2vtRvt=mgRB2l2

Substitute mgRB2l2forvt into equation (5).

v=vt(1et)1et=vvtet=1vvtet=vtvvt

Solve further as,

et=vtvtvt=ln(vtvtv)t=1ln(vtvtv)

Hence,the time taken by the loop to attain the terminal velocity is 1ln(vtvtv).

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Most popular questions from this chapter

A square loop is cut out of a thick sheet of aluminum. It is then placed so that the top portion is in a uniform magnetic field , B and is allowed to fall under gravity (Fig. 7 .20). (In the diagram, shading indicates the field region; points into the page.) If the magnetic field is 1 T (a pretty standard laboratory field), find the terminal velocity of the loop (in m/s ). Find the velocity of the loop as a function of time. How long does it take (in seconds) to reach, say, 90% of the terminal velocity? What would happen if you cut a tiny slit in the ring, breaking the circuit? [Note: The dimensions of the loop cancel out; determine the actual numbers, in the units indicated.]

Try to compute the self-inductance of the "hairpin" loop shown in Fig. 7.38. (Neglect the contribution from the ends; most of the flux comes from the long straight section.) You'll run into a snag that is characteristic of many self-inductance calculations. To get a definite answer, assume the wire has a tiny radius, and ignore any flux through the wire itself.

Find the energy stored in a section of length lof a long solenoid (radiusR, currentI, n turns per unit length),

(a) using Eq. 7.30 (you found L in Prob. 7.24);

(b) using Eq. 7.31 (we worked out A in Ex. 5.12);

(c) using Eq. 7.35;

(d) using Eq. 7.34 (take as your volume the cylindrical tube from radius a<R out to radiusb>R).

(a) Show that Maxwell's equations with magnetic charge (Eq. 7.44) are invariant under the duality transformation

E'=Ecos+cBsin,cB'=cBcos-Esin,cq'e=cqecos+qmsin,q'm=qmcos-cqesin,

Where c1/00and is an arbitrary rotation angle in 鈥淓/B-space.鈥 Charge and current densities transform in the same way as qeand qm. [This means, in particular, that if you know the fields produced by a configuration of electric charge, you can immediately (using =90) write down the fields produced by the corresponding arrangement of magnetic charge.]

(b) Show that the force law (Prob. 7.38)

F=qe(E+VB)+qm(B-1c2VE)

is also invariant under the duality transformation.

Two concentric metal spherical shells, of radius a and b, respectively, are separated by weakly conducting material of conductivity(Fig. 7 .4a).

(a) If they are maintained at a potential difference V, what current flows from one to the other?

(b) What is the resistance between the shells?

(c) Notice that if b>>a the outer radius (b) is irrelevant. How do you account for that? Exploit this observation to determine the current flowing between two metal spheres, each of radius a, immersed deep in the sea and held quite far apart (Fig. 7 .4b ), if the potential difference between them is V. (This arrangement can be used to measure the conductivity of sea water.)

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