/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none} Q44P In a perfect conductor, the cond... [FREE SOLUTION] | 91Ó°ÊÓ

91Ó°ÊÓ

In a perfect conductor, the conductivity is infinite, so E=0(Eq. 7.3), and any net charge resides on the surface (just as it does for an imperfect conductor, in electrostatics).

(a) Show that the magnetic field is constant (∂B∂t=0), inside a perfect conductor.

(b) Show that the magnetic flux through a perfectly conducting loop is constant.

A superconductor is a perfect conductor with the additional property that the (constant) B inside is in fact zero. (This "flux exclusion" is known as the Meissner effect.)

(c) Show that the current in a superconductor is confined to the surface.

(d) Superconductivity is lost above a certain critical temperature (Tc), which varies from one material to another. Suppose you had a sphere (radius ) above its critical temperature, and you held it in a uniform magnetic field B0z^while cooling it below Tc. Find the induced surface current density K, as a function of the polar angleθ.

Short Answer

Expert verified

(a) The magnetic field inside the conductor is 0.

(b) The magnetic field inside the conducting loop is constant.

(c) It is proved that the current in the superconductor is confined to the surface.

(d) The induced surface current density isk=-3B02μsinθϕ.^

Step by step solution

01

Faraday’s law

Based on this law whenever a conductor is kept inside a varying magnetic field then it experiences a force known as ‘electro motive force (emf)’ as well as a certain current is induced.

The value of emf generated on a conducting coil relies upon the change of magnetic flux as well as the number of turns of the coil.

02

Step 2(a): Magnetic field inside a perfect conductor.

Applying Faraday’s law, the expression for the magnetic field inside a perfect conductor is given by,

∇×E=-∂B∂t

Here, E is the electric field and B is the magnetic fieldinside a perfect conductor.

Putting E=0 in the expression,

∇×E=-∂B∂t∇×0=-∂B∂t∂B∂t=0

Hence, the magnetic field is constant inside a perfect conductor.

03

Step 3(b): Magnetic flux through a perfectly conducting loop

Using Faraday’s law, the integral formula for themagnetic flux through a perfectly conducting loop is given by,

∫E.dl=-dΦdt

Here, E is the electric field andΦ is the magnetic fluxthrough aperfectly conducting loop.

PuttingE=0in the expression,

∫0.dl=-dΦdt-dΦdt=0dΦdt=0

Hence, the magnetic flux through a perfectly conducting loop is constant.

04

Step 4(c): The current in a superconductor

The generalized form of Ampere-Maxwell formula is given by,

∇×B=μ0J+μ0∈0∂E∂t

Here, E represents the electric field,μ0 is the permeability of free space, J is the current in the superconductor and∂E∂t is the change in electric field.

PuttingE=0andB=0 in expression,

∇×0=μ0J+μ0∈0×0μ0J=0J=0

Hence, the current in a superconductor is confined to the surface.

05

Step 5(d): The induced surface current density

The expression for the uniform magnetic field generated inside a rotating shell in polar form is given by,

B=∇×AB=2μ0RӬδ3(cosθr^-sinθθ^)B=23μ0δRӬz^B=23μ0δRӬ

Putting the value of radius R=a in the expression,

B=23μ0δӬaZ^δӬa=-2B03μ0

The formula for the induced surface current density of the sphere is given by,

K=δν

Here,δ is the surface charge density andν is the velocity of the charge.

Putting the value of charge velocityν=Ӭ×asinθϕ^ in the expression,

K=δӬasinθϕ^K=-3B02μ0sinθϕ^

Hence, the induced surface current density isk=-3B02μ0sinθϕ^.

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with 91Ó°ÊÓ!

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

A familiar demonstration of superconductivity (Prob. 7.44) is the levitation of a magnet over a piece of superconducting material. This phenomenon can be analyzed using the method of images. Treat the magnet as a perfect dipole , m a height z above the origin (and constrained to point in the z direction), and pretend that the superconductor occupies the entire half-space below the xy plane. Because of the Meissner effect, B = 0 for Z≤0, and since B is divergenceless, the normal ( z) component is continuous, so Bz=0just above the surface. This boundary condition is met by the image configuration in which an identical dipole is placed at - z , as a stand-in for the superconductor; the two arrangements therefore produce the same magnetic field in the region z>0.

(a) Which way should the image dipole point (+ z or -z)?

(b) Find the force on the magnet due to the induced currents in the superconductor (which is to say, the force due to the image dipole). Set it equal to Mg (where M is the mass of the magnet) to determine the height h at which the magnet will "float." [Hint: Refer to Prob. 6.3.]

(c) The induced current on the surface of the superconductor ( xy the plane) can be determined from the boundary condition on the tangential component of B (Eq. 5.76): B=μ0(K×z^). Using the field you get from the image configuration, show that

K=-3mrh2Ï€(r2+h2)52Ï•^

where r is the distance from the origin.

Question: (a) Use the Neumann formula (Eq. 7.23) to calculate the mutual inductance of the configuration in Fig. 7.37, assuming a is very small (a<<b,a<<z). Compare your answer to Pro b. 7 .22.

(b) For the general case (not assuming is small), show that

M=μ0πβ2abβ(1+158β2+.....)

where

β=abz2+a2+b2

Two coils are wrapped around a cylindrical form in such a way that the same flux passes through every turn of both coils. (In practice this is achieved by inserting an iron core through the cylinder; this has the effect of concentrating the flux.) The primary coil hasN1turns and the secondary hasN2(Fig. 7.57). If the current in the primary is changing, show that the emf in the secondary is given by

ε2ε1=N2N1(7.67)

whereε1is the (back) emf of the primary. [This is a primitive transformer-a device for raising or lowering the emf of an alternating current source. By choosing the appropriate number of turns, any desired secondary emf can be obtained. If you think this violates the conservation of energy, study Prob. 7.58.]

Try to compute the self-inductance of the "hairpin" loop shown in Fig. 7.38. (Neglect the contribution from the ends; most of the flux comes from the long straight section.) You'll run into a snag that is characteristic of many self-inductance calculations. To get a definite answer, assume the wire has a tiny radius∈, and ignore any flux through the wire itself.

Where is ∂B∂tnonzero in Figure 7.21(b)? Exploit the analogy between Faraday's law and Ampere's law to sketch (qualitatively) the electric field.

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Physics Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.