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The Sommerfeld expansion is an expansion in powers of kTεF, which is assumed to be small. In this section I kept all terms through order kTεF2, omitting higher-order terms. Show at each relevant step that the term proportional to localid="1650117451748" T3is zero, so that the next nonvanishing terms in the expansions forlocalid="1650117470867" μand localid="1650117476821" Uare proportional to localid="1650117458596" T4. (If you enjoy such things, you might try evaluating the localid="1650117464980" T4terms, possibly with the aid of a computer algebra program.)

Short Answer

Expert verified

At each step the term proportional to T3is zero and the next nonvanishing terms in the expansion for μand Uare proportional to T4in the proof of expressionU≈25g0μ52+5π28(kT)2μ12+7π4384(kT)4μ-32

Step by step solution

01

Given information

We have been given that the Sommerfeld expansion is an expansion in powers of kTεF, which is assumed to be small and we kept all terms through order kTεF2, omitting higher-order terms.

We need to show at each relevant step that the term proportional to role="math" localid="1650117659810" T3is zero, so that the next nonvanishing terms in the expansions forμandU are proportional toT4.

02

Simplify

The total energy given by the integral 7.54is:

U=∫0∞εg(ε)n¯FD(ε)dε

U=g0∫0∞ε32n¯FD(ε)dε

Integrating by parts, we get:

U=25g0ε53n¯FD|0∞+25g0∫0∞ε52∂n¯FD∂εdε (Let this equation be (1))

If we substitute ε=0, the integral becomes zero due to the dependence of the term on ε53and the first term vanishes.

On simplifying, the equation (1) becomes:

U=25g0∫0∞ε52∂n¯FD∂εdε (Let this equation be (2))

We know that n¯FD=1e(ε-μ)kT+1

Taking derivative with respect to ε, we get:

∂n¯FD∂ε=∂1e(ε-μ)kT+1∂ε

On simplifying, we get:

∂n¯FD∂ε=1kTe(ε-μ)kTe(ε-μ)kT+12

Let localid="1650119493586" (ε-μ)kT=x, then we can write as :

dx=dεkT

Substitute dx,x,∂n¯FD∂εin equation (2), we get:
U=25g0∫0∞ε521kTex(ex+1)2kTdx

U=25g0∫0∞ε52ex(ex+1)2dx

03

Changing the limits of integration

We need to change the boundaries of integration, so:

ε→∞x→∞ε→0x→-μkT

As kT≪μ, so we can put -∞as the lower limit of integral, so the integral will become:

U=25g0∫-∞∞ε52ex(ex+1)2dx (Let this equation be (3))

Now by expanding the term ε52about μusing Taylor series, we get:

ε52=μ52+52(ε-μ)μ32+516(ε-μ)2μ12+5128(ε-μ)3μ-12+158(ε-μ)4μ-32...

Substitute ε-μ=kTx, we get:

ε52=μ52+52(kTx)μ32+158(kTx)2μ12+516(kTx)2μ-12+5128(kTx)2μ-32...

04

Finding the values of integrals 

Substitute the value of ε52in equation (3), we get three integral say I1,I2,I3:

U=25g0(I1+I2+I3+I4+I5) (Let this equation be (4))

where, I1=μ52∫-∞∞ex(ex+1)2dx

I2=52kTμ32∫-∞∞xex(ex+1)2dx

I3=158(kT)2μ12∫-∞∞x2ex(ex+1)2dx

I4=516(kT)3μ-12∫-∞∞x3ex(ex+1)2dx

I5=5128(kT)4μ-32∫-∞∞x4ex(ex+1)2dx

On simplifying I1,I2,I3,I4,I5, we get:

role="math" localid="1650601109788" I1=μ52I2=0I3=5π28(kT)2μ12I4=0I5=7π4384(kT)4μ-32

Substituting I1,I2,I3,I4,I5in equation (4), we get:

U≈25g0μ52+5π28(kT)2μ12+7π2384(kT)4μ-32

We have proved that the proportional term to T3is zero. We can also evaluate the further terms using computer algebra program, if wanted.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

For a system of bosons at room temperature, compute the average occupancy of a single-particle state and the probability of the state containing 0,1,2,3bosons, if the energy of the state is

(a) 0.001eVgreater than μ

(b) 0.01eVgreater than μ

(c) 0.1eVgreater than μ

(d) 1eVgreater than μ

Imagine that there exists a third type of particle, which can share a single-particle state with one other particle of the same type but no more. Thus the number of these particles in any state can be 0,1 or 2 . Derive the distribution function for the average occupancy of a state by particles of this type, and plot the occupancy as a function of the state's energy, for several different temperatures.

For a system of fermions at room temperature, compute the probability of a single-particle state being occupied if its energy is

(a) 1eVless than μ

(b) 0.01eVless than μ

(c) equal to μ

(d) 0.01eVgreater than μ

(e) 1eVgreater thanμ

A ferromagnet is a material (like iron) that magnetizes spontaneously, even in the absence of an externally applied magnetic field. This happens because each elementary dipole has a strong tendency to align parallel to its neighbors. At t=0the magnetization of a ferromagnet has the maximum possible value, with all dipoles perfectly lined up; if there are Natoms, the total magnetization is typically~2μeN, where µa is the Bohr magneton. At somewhat higher temperatures, the excitations take the form of spin waves, which can be visualized classically as shown in Figure 7.30. Like sound waves, spin waves are quantized: Each wave mode can have only integer multiples of a basic energy unit. In analogy with phonons, we think of the energy units as particles, called magnons. Each magnon reduces the total spin of the system by one unit of h21rand therefore reduces the magnetization by ~2μe. However, whereas the frequency of a sound wave is inversely proportional to its wavelength, the frequency of a spin-wave is proportional to the square of 1λ.. (in the limit of long wavelengths). Therefore, since∈=hfand p=hλ.. for any "particle," the energy of a magnon is proportional

In the ground state of a ferromagnet, all the elementary dipoles point in the same direction. The lowest-energy excitations above the ground state are spin waves, in which the dipoles precess in a conical motion. A long-wavelength spin wave carries very little energy because the difference in direction between neighboring dipoles is very small.

to the square of its momentum. In analogy with the energy-momentum relation for an ordinary nonrelativistic particle, we can write ∈=p22pm*, wherem* is a constant related to the spin-spin interaction energy and the atomic spacing. For iron, m* turns out to equal 1.24×1029kg, about14times the mass of an electron. Another difference between magnons and phonons is that each magnon ( or spin-wave mode) has only one possible polarization.

(a) Show that at low temperatures, the number of magnons per unit volume in a three-dimensional ferromagnet is given by

NmV=2π2m×kTh232∫0∞xex-1dx.

Evaluate the integral numerically.

(b) Use the result of part (a) to find an expression for the fractional reduction in magnetization, (M(O)-M(T))/M(O).Write your answer in the form (T/To)32, and estimate the constantT0for iron.

(c) Calculate the heat capacity due to magnetic excitations in a ferromagnet at low temperature. You should find Cv/Nk=(T/Ti)32, where Tidiffers from To only by a numerical constant. EstimateTifor iron, and compare the magnon and phonon contributions to the heat capacity. (The Debye temperature of iron is 470k.)

(d) Consider a two-dimensional array of magnetic dipoles at low temperature. Assume that each elementary dipole can still point in any (threedimensional) direction, so spin waves are still possible. Show that the integral for the total number of magnons diverge in this case. (This result is an indication that there can be no spontaneous magnetization in such a two-dimensional system. However, in Section 8.2we will consider a different two-dimensional model in which magnetization does occur.)

Consider a two-dimensional solid, such as a stretched drumhead or a layer of mica or graphite. Find an expression (in terms of an integral) for the thermal energy of a square chunk of this material of area , and evaluate the result approximately for very low and very high temperatures. Also, find an expression for the heat capacity, and use a computer or a calculator to plot the heat capacity as a function of temperature. Assume that the material can only vibrate perpendicular to its own plane, i.e., that there is only one "polarization."

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