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Consider a system consisting of a single impurity atom/ion in a semiconductor. Suppose that the impurity atom has one "extra" electron compared to the neighboring atoms, as would a phosphorus atom occupying a lattice site in a silicon crystal. The extra electron is then easily removed, leaving behind a positively charged ion. The ionized electron is called a conduction electron because it is free to move through the material; the impurity atom is called a donor, because it can "donate" a conduction electron. This system is analogous to the hydrogen atom considered in the previous two problems except that the ionization energy is much less, mainly due to the screening of the ionic charge by the dielectric behavior of the medium.

(a) Write down a formula for the probability of a single donor atom being ionized. Do not neglect the fact that the electron, if present, can have two independent spin states. Express your formula in terms of the temperature, the ionization energy I, and the chemical potential of the "gas" of ionized electrons.

(b) Assuming that the conduction electrons behave like an ordinary ideal gas (with two spin states per particle), write their chemical potential in terms of the number of conduction electrons per unit volume,NcV.

(c) Now assume that every conduction electron comes from an ionized donor atom. In this case the number of conduction electrons is equal to the number of donors that are ionized. Use this condition to derive a quadratic equation for Ncin terms of the number of donor atoms Nd, eliminatingµ. Solve for Ncusing the quadratic formula. (Hint: It's helpful to introduce some abbreviations for dimensionless quantities. Tryx=NcNd,t=kTland so on.)

(d) For phosphorus in silicon, the ionization energy is localid="1650039340485" 0.044eV. Suppose that there are 1017patoms per cubic centimeter. Using these numbers, calculate and plot the fraction of ionized donors as a function of temperature. Discuss the results.

Short Answer

Expert verified

(a) The formula for the probability of a single donor atom being ionized is Ps=11+2eI+μ/kT.

(b) The chemical potential in terms of the number of conduction electrons per unit volume, NcVfor μ=−kTln2VNcvQ.

(c) For Ncusing formula is Nc=Ve−I/kT2vQ1+8eI/kTvQNd2V−1

(d) The plot of fraction of ionized donors as a function of temperature is

Step by step solution

01

Part (a) step 1: Given Information

We need to find a formula for the probability of a single donor atom being ionized.

02

Part (a) step 2: Simplify

Gibbs factor is given as:

Ps=e-ε-μkT

Consider a system that consists of a single impurity (atom/ion) which has three possible states, one is an unoccupied state and the other two are occupied states (spin up and spin down):

  • Unoccupied state:
    in this case the chemical potential is zero and the energy of the state is zero also, so the Gibbs factor is:

Ps=e−0−0/kT=1

  • Occupied state (when the electron in the ground state):
    in this case substitute with ionization energy -Iinto ε(note that we multiply the factor by 2since we have two electrons):

P's=2eI+μ/kT

The Grand partition function is the sum of the two Gibbs factors, that is:

localid="1650885202394" role="math" Z=1+2eI+μ/kT

The probability that the donor atom is ionized equals it's Gibbs factor divided by the Grand partition function:

localid="1650885211600" role="math" Ps=PsZ=11+2eI+μ/kTPs=11+2eI+μ/kT

03

Part (b) step 1: Given Information 

We need to find the number of conduction electrons per unit volume,NcV.

04

Part (b) step 2: Simplify

The chemical potential is given by the equation 6.93 as :

μ=−kTlnVZintNcvQ

the internal partition function is 2because we have two spin states, so the chemical potential can be reduced to:

μ=−kTln2VNcvQ

05

Part (c) step 1: Given Information 

We need to solve for Ncusing the quadratic formula.

06

Part (c) step 2: Simplify

If every conduction electron comes from an ionized donor, then probability that the donor atom has is:

Ps=NcNd

use the result of part (a) to get:

NcNd=11+2eI+μ/kTNcNd=11+2eI/kTeμ/kT...(1)

now we need to use the results of part (b), as follow:

−μkT=ln2VNcvQeμ/kT=2VNv

07

Part (c) step 3: Calculation 

Substitute into (1) get:

NcNd=11+2eIkTNcvQ2VNcNd=11+aNc

where,

a=2eI/kTvQ2V

therefore,
aNc2+Nc=NdaNc2+Nc−Nd=0

this is a quadratic equation which can be solved using the general law, so:

Nc=−1±1+4aNd2aNc=−1±1+8eI/kTvQNd2V4eI/kTvQ2V

the number of conduction electrons is always positive, so:
=1+8eI/kTvQNd2V−14eI/kTvQ2VNc=Ve−I/kT2vQ1+8eI/kTvQNd2V−1

08

Part (d) step 1: Given Information

We need to calculate and plot the fraction of ionized donors as a function of temperature.

09

Part (d) step 2: Simplify

The quantum value is given as:

vQ=h22Ï€mkT3/2

the mass of the phosphorus atom is 31u, where u=1.66×10−27kgsubstitute with the givens to get (that h=6.6×10-34J.sand k=1.38×10-23J.k)

vQ=6.626×10−34J⋅s22π31×1.66×10−27kg1.38×10−23J/KT3/2=3.086×10−29T−3/2m3/K3/2

now we need to simplify the result of part (c), the solution of the equation is:

Nc=1+4aNd−12a

using the expansion:

1+x≈1+x2−x28

With x=4aNd, then:

Nc=12a4aNd2−4aNd28Nc=Nd−aNd2NcNd=1−aNdNcNd=1−2eI/kTvQNd2V

10

Part (d) step 3: Calculation

Suppose we have 1017Patoms per cm3:

NdV=1×1023atom/m3

and the ionization energy for phosphorus in silicon is I=0.044eVsubstitute intoNc/Ndget:

NcNd=1−e0.044eV/8.62×10−5eV/KT1×1023×3.086×10−29T3/2NcNd=1−e510.44K/T3.086×10−6T3/2

11

Part (d) 4: Simplify

To plot this function I used python, and the code is shown in the following picture:

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Consider an isolated system of Nidentical fermions, inside a container where the allowed energy levels are nondegenerate and evenly spaced.* For instance, the fermions could be trapped in a one-dimensional harmonic oscillator potential. For simplicity, neglect the fact that fermions can have multiple spin orientations (or assume that they are all forced to have the same spin orientation). Then each energy level is either occupied or unoccupied, and any allowed system state can be represented by a column of dots, with a filled dot representing an occupied level and a hollow dot representing an unoccupied level. The lowest-energy system state has all levels below a certain point occupied, and all levels above that point unoccupied. Let ηbe the spacing between energy levels, and let be the number of energy units (each of size 11) in excess of the ground-state energy. Assume thatq<N. Figure 7 .8 shows all system states up to q=3.

(a) Draw dot diagrams, as in the figure, for all allowed system states with q=4,q=5,andq=6. (b) According to the fundamental assumption, all allowed system states with a given value of q are equally probable. Compute the probability of each energy level being occupied, for q=6. Draw a graph of this probability as a function of the energy of the level. ( c) In the thermodynamic limit where qis large, the probability of a level being occupied should be given by the Fermi-Dirac distribution. Even though 6 is not a large number, estimate the values of μand T that you would have to plug into the Fermi-Dirac distribution to best fit the graph you drew in part (b).

A representation of the system states of a fermionic sytern with evenly spaced, nondegen erate energy levels. A filled dot rep- resents an occupied single-particle state, while a hollow dot represents an unoccupied single-particle state . {d) Calculate the entropy of this system for each value of q from 0to6, and draw a graph of entropy vs. energy. Make a rough estimate of the slope of this graph near q=6, to obtain another estimate of the temperature of this system at that point. Check that it is in rough agreement with your answer to part ( c).

Each atom in a chunk of copper contributes one conduction electron. Look up the density and atomic mass of copper, and calculate the Fermi energy, the Fermi temperature, the degeneracy pressure, and the contribution of the degeneracy pressure to the bulk modulus. Is room temperature sufficiently low to treat this system as a degenerate electron gas?

Number of photons in a photon gas.

(a) Show that the number of photons in equilibrium in a box of volume V at temperature T is

N=8πVkThc3∫0∞x2ex-1dx

The integral cannot be done analytically; either look it up in a table or evaluate it numerically.

(b) How does this result compare to the formula derived in the text for the entropy of a photon gas? (What is the entropy per photon, in terms of k?)

(c) Calculate the number of photons per cubic meter at the following temperatures: 300 K; 1500 K (a typical kiln); 2.73 K (the cosmic background radiation).

Sketch the heat capacity of copper as a function of temperature from 0to5K, showing the contributions of lattice vibrations and conduction electrons separately. At what temperature are these two contributions equal?

A ferromagnet is a material (like iron) that magnetizes spontaneously, even in the absence of an externally applied magnetic field. This happens because each elementary dipole has a strong tendency to align parallel to its neighbors. At t=0the magnetization of a ferromagnet has the maximum possible value, with all dipoles perfectly lined up; if there are Natoms, the total magnetization is typically~2μeN, where µa is the Bohr magneton. At somewhat higher temperatures, the excitations take the form of spin waves, which can be visualized classically as shown in Figure 7.30. Like sound waves, spin waves are quantized: Each wave mode can have only integer multiples of a basic energy unit. In analogy with phonons, we think of the energy units as particles, called magnons. Each magnon reduces the total spin of the system by one unit of h21rand therefore reduces the magnetization by ~2μe. However, whereas the frequency of a sound wave is inversely proportional to its wavelength, the frequency of a spin-wave is proportional to the square of 1λ.. (in the limit of long wavelengths). Therefore, since∈=hfand p=hλ.. for any "particle," the energy of a magnon is proportional

In the ground state of a ferromagnet, all the elementary dipoles point in the same direction. The lowest-energy excitations above the ground state are spin waves, in which the dipoles precess in a conical motion. A long-wavelength spin wave carries very little energy because the difference in direction between neighboring dipoles is very small.

to the square of its momentum. In analogy with the energy-momentum relation for an ordinary nonrelativistic particle, we can write ∈=p22pm*, wherem* is a constant related to the spin-spin interaction energy and the atomic spacing. For iron, m* turns out to equal 1.24×1029kg, about14times the mass of an electron. Another difference between magnons and phonons is that each magnon ( or spin-wave mode) has only one possible polarization.

(a) Show that at low temperatures, the number of magnons per unit volume in a three-dimensional ferromagnet is given by

NmV=2π2m×kTh232∫0∞xex-1dx.

Evaluate the integral numerically.

(b) Use the result of part (a) to find an expression for the fractional reduction in magnetization, (M(O)-M(T))/M(O).Write your answer in the form (T/To)32, and estimate the constantT0for iron.

(c) Calculate the heat capacity due to magnetic excitations in a ferromagnet at low temperature. You should find Cv/Nk=(T/Ti)32, where Tidiffers from To only by a numerical constant. EstimateTifor iron, and compare the magnon and phonon contributions to the heat capacity. (The Debye temperature of iron is 470k.)

(d) Consider a two-dimensional array of magnetic dipoles at low temperature. Assume that each elementary dipole can still point in any (threedimensional) direction, so spin waves are still possible. Show that the integral for the total number of magnons diverge in this case. (This result is an indication that there can be no spontaneous magnetization in such a two-dimensional system. However, in Section 8.2we will consider a different two-dimensional model in which magnetization does occur.)

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