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Suppose that X1and X2are independent random variables having a common mean . Suppose also that VarX1=12and VarX2=22. The value of is unknown, and it is proposed that be estimated by a weighted average of X1and X2. That is, role="math" localid="1647423606105" X1+(1-)X2will be used as an estimate of for some appropriate value of . Which value of yields the estimate having the lowest possible variance? Explain why it is desirable to use this value of

Short Answer

Expert verified

Reason for it is desirable to use this value of .

As VarX1+(1-)X2=EX1+(1-)X22, then is to be small.

Step by step solution

01

Given Information

Independent Random variables=X1,X2

VarX1=12

VarX2=22

=?

X1+(1-)X2 will be used as an estimate of.

02

Explanation

Suppose that X1and X2are independent random variables having a common mean .

Let X1+(1-)X2will be used as an estimate of for some appropriate value of . It is known that VarX1=12and VarX2=22

Find the variance of X1+(1-)X2,

VarX1+(1)X2=VarX1+Var(1)X2

role="math" =2VarX1+(1)2VarX2

=212+(1)222

03

Explanation

Find the value of yields the estimate having the lowest possible variance:

Differentiate with respect to and then equating to 0.

ddVarX1+(1)X2=0

dd212+(1)222=0

role="math" 2122(1)22=0

=2212+22

04

Final Answer

The reason for it is desirable to use this value of,

As VarX1+(1-)X2=EX1+(1-)X22then is to be small.

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