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Chapter 5: Q8DQ (page 1151)

For a spherical mirror, if s = f , then s' = 鈭�, and the lateral magnification m is infinite. Does this make sense? If so, what does it mean?

Short Answer

Expert verified

Yes, it makes sense that m is infinity and s'is also infinity.

Step by step solution

01

Ratio between the distance and the magnification

Now the ratio of between the distance of the object s and the distance of the image s' is called the lateral magnification m and it is given by the equation:

m=-s's

02

Lateral magnification

Now, it is given that thes=fwhere f is the focal length ands'=鈭�. Putting the values in the above equation we get:

m=-s's=-鈭�f=鈭�

Hence the lateral magnification is given by 鈭�, which makes sense.

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