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There is a simple argument, practically by inspection, that distributions(9-31),(9-32), and(9-33)should agree whenever occupation number is much less than 1. Provide the argument.

Short Answer

Expert verified

N(E)≈1BeE/kBT,ForN(E)<<1

Step by step solution

01

Concept used

The Boltzmann distribution is:

N(E)=1BeE/kBT

The Bose-Einstein statistics:

N(E)=1BeE/kBT-1

The Fermi-Dirac statistics:

N(E)=1BeE/kBT+1.

02

Use Boltzmann distribution, the Bose-Einstein statistics, the Fermi-Dirac statistics

Let us first list down the occupation numbers Nassociated with a specific type of particle. For classical distinguishable particles, the Boltzmann distribution writes:

N(E)=1BeE/kBT ……. (1)

For bosons, the Bose-Einstein statistics gives:

N(E)=1BeE/kBT-1 ……. (2)

For fermions, the Fermi-Dirac statistics gives:

N(E)=1BeE/kBT+1. ……. (3)

Here B is a normalization coefficient, E is the energy,kBis Boltzmann's constant, and T is the temperature.

Now in order for the occupation numbers to be much less than one: N(E)<<1, the term BeE/kBTmust be very large. Ideally ifBeE/kBT→∞ , then it must be true thatN(E)→0 . In such a scenario, the terms -1and+1 in eqns. (2) and (3) become irrelevant, and all coincide to the Boltzmann distribution:

N(E)≈1BeE/kBT,ForN(E)<<1

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  6. What do your finding suggests?

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