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Show that if pis a positive integer, then (pn)=0 when n>p,so (1+x)p=∑(pn)xnis just a sum of p+1terms, from n=0to n=p. For example, (1+x)2has 3terms, (1+x)3has 4terms, etc. This is just the familiar binomial theorem.

Short Answer

Expert verified

The statement has been proven.

Step by step solution

01

Given Information 

The binomial series.

02

Definition of the binomial series.

The Taylor series for the function given by is the binomial series, where is an arbitrary complex number.

03

Prove the statement.

The binomial series states that(1+x)p=∑n=0∞pnxn

The formula states that pn=p(p-1)(p-2)…(p-n+1)n!

pn=p(p-1)(p-2)…(p-p)…(p-n+1)n!

role="math" localid="1657435976526" p(p-1)(p-2)…(p-p)…(p-n+1)n!=0p!p!(p-p)!=1pn≠0only forn≤pandn≥0

Solve further.

(1+x)p=∑n=0∞pnxn

(1+x)p=p0+p1x+p2x2+p3x3+…+ppxp

The expansion has p+1terms forn=0-p.

The statement has been proven.

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