/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none} Problem 5 A particle in the infinite squar... [FREE SOLUTION] | 91Ó°ÊÓ

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A particle in the infinite square well has as its initial wave function an even mixture of the first two stationary states: $$\Psi(x, 0)=A\left[\psi_{1}(x)+\psi_{2}(x)\right].$$ (a) Normalize \(\Psi(x, 0)\). (That is, find \(A\). This is very easy, if you exploit the orthonormality of \(\psi_{1}\) and \(\psi_{2} .\) Recall that, having normalized \(\Psi\) at \(t=0\) you can rest assured that it stays normalized- if you doubt this, check it explicitly after doing part (b).) (b) Find \(\Psi(x, t)\) and \(|\Psi(x, t)|^{2} .\) Express the latter as a sinusoidal function of time, as in Example \(2.1 .\) To simplify the result, let \(\omega \equiv \pi^{2} \hbar / 2 m a^{2}.\) (c) Compute \(\langle x\rangle .\) Notice that it oscillates in time. What is the angular frequency of the oscillation? What is the amplitude of the oscillation? (If your amplitude is greater than \(a / 2,\) go directly to jail.) (d) Compute \(\langle p\rangle .\) (As Peter Lorre would say, "Do it ze kveek vay, Johnny!") (e) If you measured the energy of this particle, what values might you get, and what is the probability of getting each of them? Find the expectation value of \(H .\) How does it compare with \(E_{1}\) and \(E_{2}\) ?

Short Answer

Expert verified
Find \(A = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\). \(|\Psi(x,t)|^2 = \frac{1}{2}[\psi_1^2 + \psi_2^2 + 2\psi_1\psi_2\cos(3\omega t)]\). \(\langle x \rangle\) oscillates with \(3\omega\), \(\langle p \rangle = 0\), and energies \(E_1, E_2\) with \(\langle H \rangle = \frac{5\omega}{2}\).

Step by step solution

01

Normalize the Wave Function

To normalize the wave function \(\Psi(x,0) = A[\psi_1(x) + \psi_2(x)]\), we need to set the integral of the probability density over the entire space equal to 1:\[\int_{0}^{a} |\Psi(x, 0)|^2 \ dx = 1.\] Substituting \(\Psi(x, 0)\), we have:\[A^2 \int_{0}^{a} (\psi_1(x) + \psi_2(x))^2 \ dx = 1.\] Using orthonormality, \(\int \psi_1(x)^2 dx = \int \psi_2(x)^2 dx = 1\) and \(\int \psi_1(x) \psi_2(x) dx = 0\), the equation simplifies to \[2A^2 = 1\]. Solving for \(A\), we get \(A = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\).
02

Find Time-Dependent Wave Function

The time evolution of the wave function is given by \(\Psi(x, t) = A[\psi_1(x)e^{-iE_1t/\hbar} + \psi_2(x)e^{-iE_2t/\hbar}]\). Here, \(E_n = \frac{n^2\pi^2\hbar^2}{2ma^2}\) for an infinite square well. Therefore, \(E_1 = \frac{\pi^2\hbar^2}{2ma^2}\) and \(E_2 = \frac{4\pi^2\hbar^2}{2ma^2}\). Using \(\omega = \frac{\pi^2\hbar}{2ma^2}\), we have \(E_1 = \omega\) and \(E_2 = 4\omega\). Thus, \[\Psi(x, t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}[\psi_1(x)e^{-i\omega t} + \psi_2(x)e^{-i4\omega t}].\]
03

Calculate Probability Density

The probability density \(|\Psi(x, t)|^2\) is given by \(\Psi(x, t)\cdot \Psi^*(x, t)\). Using the expansion from Step 2, we find\[|\Psi(x, t)|^2 = \frac{1}{2}[\psi_1(x)^2 + \psi_2(x)^2 + 2\psi_1(x)\psi_2(x)\cos(3\omega t)].\] Thus, the probability density is a sinusoidal function in time.
04

Compute Expectation Value of Position \(\langle x \rangle\)

The expectation value \(\langle x \rangle\) is given by the integral \(\langle x \rangle = \int_{0}^{a} x |\Psi(x,t)|^2 dx\). Calculating it over time, we find it oscillates as \[\langle x \rangle = \frac{a}{2} + A\cos(3\omega t),\] where \(A\) is the oscillation amplitude. The angular frequency of oscillation is \(3\omega\), and for \(\langle x \rangle\), the amplitude should not exceed \(a/2\).
05

Compute Expectation Value of Momentum \(\langle p \rangle\)

The expectation value \(\langle p \rangle\) for a state with wave function \(\Psi(x,t)\) is found using \(\langle p \rangle = \int_{0}^{a} \Psi^*(x,t) \left(-i\hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\right) \Psi(x,t) dx\). For this mixture of energy eigenstates, \(\langle p \rangle = 0\), since \(\Psi\) is symmetric and the momentum operator \(-i\hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\) is anti-symmetric, leading to cancellation.
06

Find Energy Measurement Outcomes and Probabilities

If the energy is measured, it could be \(E_1\) with probability \(|\langle \psi_1 | \Psi \rangle|^2 = \frac{1}{2}\), or \(E_2\) with the same probability \(= \frac{1}{2}\). The expectation value of energy \(\langle H \rangle = \frac{E_1 + E_2}{2} = \frac{5\omega}{2}\), which is the average of the two energies weighted by their probabilities, lying between \(E_1\) and \(E_2\).

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Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Wave Function Normalization
In quantum mechanics, the wave function \(\Psi(x)\) describes the state of a particle and its behavior. To gain physical meaning, it must be normalized. This means that the total probability of finding the particle in all space equals 1. The normalization condition can be expressed as \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} |\Psi(x)|^2 \, dx = 1\).
For a particle in an infinite square well, where the potential is zero inside the well and infinite outside, the wave function must be zero outside the well. So, the normalization needs to be computed over the interval \([0, a]\), where \(a\) is the width of the well.
In the given problem, the wave function is an even mixture of the first two stationary states: \(\Psi(x,0) = A[\psi_1(x) + \psi_2(x)]\). By using the orthonormality of stationary states, you can find the normalization constant \(A\). For our example, this simplifies to \(|A| = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\). It ensures the wave function's squared integral over the interval \([0, a]\) equals 1. Normalizing is crucial because it allows predictions about probabilities and observables to be made accurately.
Time-Dependent Schrödinger Equation
The time-dependent Schrödinger equation governs how the wave function \(\Psi(x,t)\) evolves over time. It's crucial when dealing with quantum systems, especially in an infinite square well, where the solutions are energy eigenstates.
For a particle in an infinite square well, the energy eigenstates are known as stationary states \(\psi_n(x)\), and the general wave function is expressed as a superposition of these states.
The time evolution of these states includes an exponential factor, \(e^{-iE_nt/\hbar}\), where \(E_n\) is the energy of the \(n\)th state. In the problem, the time-dependent wave function is \(\Psi(x, t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}[\psi_1(x)e^{-i\omega t} + \psi_2(x)e^{-i4\omega t}]\), with \(\omega = \frac{\pi^2\hbar}{2ma^2}\).
This expression captures the oscillatory nature of quantum states in a potential well, allowing us to see how probability distributions shift over time.
Expectation Value
In quantum mechanics, the expectation value provides insight into physical quantities such as position, momentum, or energy. It's like a weighted average of all possible outcomes, reflecting what can be expected if many identical measurements are made.
To find the expectation value of position \(\langle x \rangle\), you compute the integral \(\langle x \rangle = \int_{0}^{a} x |\Psi(x,t)|^2 \, dx\). For our scenario, it represents how the average position of a particle varies over time inside an infinite square well.
The result \(\langle x \rangle = \frac{a}{2} + A \cos(3\omega t)\) shows oscillation around the center of the well \(\frac{a}{2}\) with angular frequency \(3\omega\). The amplitude depends on the overlap of wave functions. This oscillatory behavior is insightful for understanding the dynamic nature of quantum systems.
Infinite Square Well
The infinite square well is a simple yet fundamental concept in quantum mechanics. It describes a particle confined to a one-dimensional box with impenetrable walls, making it a perfect potential well. The potential energy is zero inside the well and infinite outside.
This setup results in quantized energy levels that only allow specific states, expressed as \(E_n = \frac{n^2\pi^2\hbar^2}{2ma^2}\), where \(n\) is an integer representing the quantum number. Since the potential is infinite at the boundaries, the wave function must be zero outside and at the boundary of the well.
Because of its simplicity, the infinite square well is a classic model for understanding more complex quantum systems. It demonstrates the concept of quantization and boundary conditions effectively and is solvable in both time-independent and time-dependent scenarios.
Energy Measurement Probabilities
Measuring the energy of a particle in a quantum state involves probabilities, as different energies can be measured depending on the state's composition.
In our exercise dealing with the infinite square well, the wave function is a superposition of the first two eigenstates \(\psi_1(x)\) and \(\psi_2(x)\), each associated with energies \(E_1\) and \(E_2\), respectively. When measuring energy, you are likely to get either \(E_1\) or \(E_2\) with certain probabilities.
The probability of measuring a specific energy \(E_n\) is given by \(|\langle \psi_n | \Psi \rangle|^2\). For our problem, each energy has a probability of \(\frac{1}{2}\). The expectation value of the energy, a weighted average of possible outcomes, is found to be \(\langle H \rangle = \frac{E_1 + E_2}{2}\). It shows how the average energy value relates to the possible measurements, offering insight into the energy characteristics of superposed states.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Suppose $$V(x)=\left\\{\begin{array}{ll} -\alpha / x^{2}, & x>0 \\ \infty, & x \leq 0 \end{array}\right.$$ where \(a\) is some positive constant with the appropriate dimensions. We'd like to find the bound states-solutions to the time-independent Schrödinger equation $$-\frac{\hbar^{2}}{2 m} \frac{d^{2} \psi}{d x^{2}}-\frac{\alpha}{x^{2}} \psi=E \psi$$ with negative energy \((E<0)\) (a) Let's first go for the ground state energy, \(E_{0}\). Prove, on dimensional grounds, that there is no possible formula for \(E_{0}\) no way to construct (from the available constants \(m, \hbar,\) and \(\alpha\) ) a quantity with the units of energy. That's weird, but it gets worse \(\ldots .\) (b) For convenience, rewrite Equation 2.190 as $$\frac{d^{2} \psi}{d x^{2}}+\frac{\beta}{x^{2}} \psi=\kappa^{2} \psi, \text { where } \beta \equiv \frac{2 m \alpha}{\hbar^{2}} \text { and } \kappa \equiv \frac{\sqrt{-2 m E}}{\hbar}$$ Show that if \(\psi(x)\) satisfies this equation with energy \(E\), then so too does \(\psi(\lambda x),\) with energy \(E^{\prime}=\lambda^{2} E,\) for any positive number \(\lambda .\) [This is a catastrophe: if there exists any solution at all, then there's a solution for every (negative) energy! Unlike the square well, the harmonic oscillator, and every other potential well we have encountered, there are no discrete allowed states- and no ground state. A system with no ground state-no lowest allowed energy-would be wildly unstable, cascading down to lower and lower levels, giving off an unlimited amount of energy as it falls. It might solve our energy problem, but we'd all be fried in the process. \(]\) Well, perhaps there simply are no solutions at all\(\ldots .\) (c) (Use a computer for the remainder of this problem.) Show that $$\psi_{\kappa}(x)=A \sqrt{x} K_{i g}(\kappa x)$$ satisfies Equation 2.191 (here \(K_{i g}\) is the modified Bessel function of order \(i g,\) and \(g \equiv \sqrt{\beta-1 / 4}\) ). Plot this function, for \(g=4\) (you might as well let \(\kappa=1\) for the graph; this just sets the scale of length). Notice that it goes to 0 as \(x \rightarrow 0\) and as \(x \rightarrow \infty\). And it's normalizable: determine \(A\). 66 wout the old rule that the number of nodes counts the number of lower-energy states? This function has an infinite number of nodes, regardless of the energy (i.e. of \(\kappa\) ). I guess that's consistent, since for any \(E\) there are always an infinite number of states with even lower energy. (d) This potential confounds practically everything we have come to expect. The problem is that it blows up too violently as \(x \rightarrow 0 .\) If you move the "brick wall" over a hair, $$V(x)=\left\\{\begin{array}{ll} -\alpha / x^{2}, & x > \epsilon > 0 \\ \infty, & x \leq \epsilon \end{array}\right.$$ it's suddenly perfectly normal. Plot the ground state wave function, for \(g=4\) and \(\epsilon=1\) (you'll first need to determine the appropriate value of \(\kappa\) ), from \(x=0\) to \(x=6 .\) Notice that we have introduced a new parameter \((\epsilon),\) with the dimensions of length, so the argument in (a) is out the window. Show that the ground state energy takes the form $$E_{0}=-\frac{\alpha}{\epsilon^{2}} f(\beta)$$ for some function \(f\) of the dimensionless quantity \(\beta\)

Consider the double delta-function potential $$V(x)=-\alpha[\delta(x+a)+\delta(x-a)],$$ where \(a\) and \(a\) are positive constants. (a) Sketch this potential. (b) How many bound states does it possess? Find the allowed energies, for \(\alpha=\hbar^{2} / m a\) and for \(\alpha=\hbar^{2} / 4 m a,\) and sketch the wave functions. (c) What are the bound state energies in the limiting cases (i) \(a \rightarrow 0\) and (ii) \(a \rightarrow \infty\) (holding a fixed)? Explain why your answers are reasonable, by comparison with the single delta-function well.

Show that \(\left[A e^{i k x}+B e^{-i k x}\right]\) and \([C \cos k x+D \sin k x]\) are equivalent ways of writing the same function of \(x\), and determine the constants \(C\) and \(D\) in terms of \(A\) and \(B\), and vice versa. Comment: In quantum mechanics, when \(V=0,\) the exponentials represent traveling waves, and are most convenient in discussing the free particle, whereas sines and cosines correspond to standing waves, which arise naturally in the case of the infinite square well.

If two (or more) distinct \(^{56}\) solutions to the (time-independent) Schrödinger equation have the same energy \(E,\) these states are said to be degenerate. For example, the free particle states are doubly degenerate- one solution representing motion to the right, and the other motion to the left. But we have never encountered normalizable degenerate solutions, and this is no accident. Prove the following theorem: In one dimension \(^{57}\) \((-\infty

$$\left(1-x^{2}\right) \frac{d^{2} f}{d x^{2}}-2 x \frac{d f}{d x}+\ell(\ell+1) f=0$$ where \(\ell\) is some (non-negative) real number. (a) Assume a power series solution, $$f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_{n} x^{n}$$ and obtain a recursion relation for the constants \(a_{n}\) (b) Argue that unless the series truncates (which can only happen if \(\ell\) is an integer \(),\) the solution will diverge at \(x=1\) (c) When \(\ell\) is an integer, the series for one of the two linearly independent solutions (either \(f\) even or \(f\) odd depending on whether \(\ell\) is even or odd) will truncate, and those solutions are called Legendre polynomials \(P_{\ell}(x)\) Find \(P_{0}(x), P_{1}(x), P_{2}(x),\) and \(P_{3}(x)\) from the recursion relation. Leave your answer in terms of either \(a_{0}\) or \(a_{1} .^{69}\)

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