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Question:

An illuminating alternative derivation of the WKB formula (Equation) is based on an expansion in powers ofh. Motivated by the free particle wave function ψ=Aexp(±ipx/h),, we write

ψ(x)=eif(x)/h

Wheref(x)is some complex function. (Note that there is no loss of generality here-any nonzero function can be written in this way.)

(a) Put this into Schrödinger's equation (in the form of Equation8.1), and show that

. ihfcc-(fc)2+p2+0.

(b) Write f(x)as a power series inh:

f(x)=f0(x)+hf1(x)+h2f2(x)+......And, collecting like powers ofh, show that

(o˙0)2=p2,io˙0=2o˙0o˙1,io˙1=2o˙0o˙2+(o˙1)2,....

(c) Solve forf0(x)andf1(x), and show that-to first order inyou recover Equation8.10.

Short Answer

Expert verified

(a)ihf"-(f')2+p2=0 And it’s proved.

(b)(f0')2=p2,if0:=2f0'f1',if1:=2f0'f2'+(f1')2 and it’s proved.

(c)Therefore, ψ(x) is given by

ψ(x)≅cp(x)e±ih∫p(x)dx

Step by step solution

01

Step 1:(a) Show the Schrodinger Equation.

Let, the wave equation take the form,

ψ(x)=eif(x)/h

Where, f(x) is some complex function.

So that,

dψdx=ihf'(x)ψ(x)d2ψdx2=ihf"(x)-1h2f'(x)2ψ(x)...(a)

We known that Schrodinger Equation,

d2ψdx2=p2h2ψ

Substitute equation (a) in Schrodinger Equation we get,

if"h-f'2h2ψ(x)=-p2h2ψ(x)This leads to

ihf"-f'2+p2=0 ............(1)

02

(b) To write f(x) as a power series.

Writeas a power series in:

f(x)=f0(x)+hf1(x)+h2f2(x)+...,

So that,

f'(x)=f0'x)+hf1'(x)+h2f2'(x)+...,f"(x)=f0"x)+hf1"(x)+h2f2"(x)+...,

Putting this into equation (1) we have,

ihf0"+hf1"+h2f2"+...,-f0'+hf1'+h2f2'+...,+p2=0

(Or)

p2-f0'2+hif0"-2f0'f1'+h2if0"-2f0'f2'-f1'2+Oh3

Finally, power of yields,

f0'2=p2,if0"-2f0'f1',if0"-2f0'f2'-f1'2

........etc.

03

Step 3:(c) To solve f0(x) and f1(x).

In step 2, we have to show that,

f0'2=p2

(or)

f0'=±p

Integrating we get,

f0x=±∫pxdx+C1(C1 is constant)

Also, it follows (by taking the x-derivative) that,

f0"=±dpdx

Again from step 2, we have shown that

if0"=2f0'f1'

Solving for f1'an substituting for f0'and f0'then,

f1'=i2pdpdx=i2dinpxdx

By integrating, we get

f1'=i2inpx+C2(C2 is constant)

Hence, we can write f(x) into first order in has,

role="math" localid="1658465427689" fx=±∫pxdx+ihInp(x)+constant+Oh2

Hence ψ(x)is given by,

ψ(x)≈exp±ih∫pxdx-ihInp(x)+constant=Cp(x)e±ih∫pxdx

Which is exactly as equation (8.10).

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