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In calculating the current enclosed by an Amperian loop, one must,in general, evaluate an integral of the form

Ienc=∫sJ⋅da

The trouble is, there are infinitely many surfaces that share the same boundary line. Which one are we supposed to use?

Short Answer

Expert verified

As a result, any particular surface can be considered for an endless number of surfaces with the same boundary line because the integral is independent of the surface.

Step by step solution

01

Define function

Here, The sum of the enclosed currents times the permeability of free space is equal to the closed line integral of the magnetic field multiplied by the length of the curve, according to Ampere's law.

Write the expression for the ampere’s law.

∮B⋅dl=μ0∑Ienc …… (1)

Here,μ0 is the permeability for free space,B is the magnetic field, dlis the length of curve, Iencis the enclosed current.

Write the expression for value of current enclosed in terms of current density.

Ienc=∫sJ⋅da …… (2)

Here, Jis the current density andIenc is the enclosed current.

02

Determine solution

The integral is surface independent, according to the divergence less field’s theorem. Any given boundary line's integral∫J⋅da value will be the same. For an enclosed surface, the integral value will be 0. In addition, the current density should have a lower divergence than the following criterion.

∇⋅J=0 …… (3)

As a result, any particular surface can be considered for an endless number of surfaces with the same boundary line because the integral is independent of the surface.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Find the magnetic vector potential of a finite segment of straight wire carrying a current I.[Put the wire on the zaxis, fromz1 to z2, and use Eq. 5.66.]

Check that your answer is consistent with Eq. 5.37.

(a) Complete the proof of Theorem 2, Sect. 1.6.2. That is, show that any divergenceless vector field F can be written as the curl of a vector potential . What you have to do is find Ax,Ayand Azsuch that (i) ∂Az/∂y-∂Ay/∂z=Fx; (ii) ∂Ax/∂z-∂Az/∂x=Fy; and (iii) ∂Ay/∂x-∂Ax/∂y=Fz. Here's one way to do it: Pick Ax=0, and solve (ii) and (iii) for Ayand Az. Note that the "constants of integration" are themselves functions of y and z -they're constant only with respect to x. Now plug these expressions into (i), and use the fact that ∇⋅F=0to obtain

Ay=∫0xFz(x',y,z)dx';Az=∫0yFx(0,y',z)dy'-∫0yFy(x',y,z)dx'

(b) By direct differentiation, check that the you obtained in part (a) satisfies ∇×A=F. Is divergenceless? [This was a very asymmetrical construction, and it would be surprising if it were-although we know that there exists a vector whose curl is F and whose divergence is zero.]

(c) As an example, let F=yx^+zy^+xz^. Calculate , and confirm that ∇×A=F. (For further discussion, see Prob. 5.53.)

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(b) Check Eqs. 5.77 and 5.78 for the configuration in Ex. 5.11.

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Suppose there did exist magnetic monopoles. How would you modifyMaxwell's equations and the force law to accommodate them? If you think thereare several plausible options, list them, and suggest how you might decide experimentally which one is right.

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