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Prove Eq. 5.78, using Eqs. 5.63, 5.76, and 5.77. [Suggestion: I'd set up Cartesian coordinates at the surface, with Z perpendicular to the surface and X parallel to the current.]

Short Answer

Expert verified

The equation 5.78 is proved.

Step by step solution

01

Significance of the magnetostatics

Magnetostatics is described as the subfield of electromagnetics that describes a static field of the magnet. Moreover, magnetostatics also appears around the magnetized bodies’ surface.

02

Proving the equation 5.78

The equation 5.78 is expressed as:

∂Aabove∂n-∂Abelow∂n=-μ0K

Here, ∂Aabove∂n is the derivative of the potential of Aabove, ∂Abelow∂n is the derivative of the potential of Abelow, μ0 is the permeability and K is the constant.

The equation 5.77 is expressed as:

Aabove=Abelow

The equation 5.76 is expressed as:

Babove-Bbelow=μ0(K×n^) …(¾±)

Here, Babove is one component of the magnetic field, n^ is the position vector and role="math" localid="1657534284873" Bbelow is another component of the magnetic field.

The equation 5.63 is expressed as:

∇⋅A=0

Here, ∇ is the curl.

As Aabove=Abelow, then the value of ∂a∂y and ∂a∂x are also same in below and also in above.

The equation of the magnetic field can be expressed as:

Babove-Bbelow=-∂Ayabove∂z+∂Aybelow∂zx^+-∂Axabove∂z+∂Axbelow∂zy^ …(¾±¾±¾±)

Comparing the equation (ii) and (iii).

role="math" localid="1657533984204" -∂Ayabove∂z+∂Aybelow∂zx^+-∂Axabove∂z+∂Axbelow∂zy^=μ0(K×n^)

As the equation 5.76 is along the axis, then the above equation can be expressed as:

role="math" localid="1657534042142" -∂Ayabove∂z+∂Aybelow∂zx^+-∂Axabove∂z+∂Axbelow∂zy^=μ0K(-y^)

Due to the x and the y components, the above equation can be reduced to two values such as:

-∂Ayabove∂z-∂Aybelow∂zx^=x^∂Ayabove∂z-∂Aybelow∂z-∂Axabove∂z-∂Axbelow∂zy^=-μ0Ky^∂Axabove∂z-∂Axbelow∂z=-μ0K

According to the equation 5.63, the normal derivative of the A component is parallel to the product of the permeability and constant K .

Hence, the above equation can be expressed as:

∂Aabove∂n-∂Abelow∂n=-μ0K

Thus, the equation 5.78 is proved.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

(a) Complete the proof of Theorem 2, Sect. 1.6.2. That is, show that any divergenceless vector field F can be written as the curl of a vector potential . What you have to do is find Ax,Ayand Azsuch that (i) ∂Az/∂y-∂Ay/∂z=Fx; (ii) ∂Ax/∂z-∂Az/∂x=Fy; and (iii) ∂Ay/∂x-∂Ax/∂y=Fz. Here's one way to do it: Pick Ax=0, and solve (ii) and (iii) for Ayand Az. Note that the "constants of integration" are themselves functions of y and z -they're constant only with respect to x. Now plug these expressions into (i), and use the fact that ∇⋅F=0to obtain

Ay=∫0xFz(x',y,z)dx';Az=∫0yFx(0,y',z)dy'-∫0yFy(x',y,z)dx'

(b) By direct differentiation, check that the you obtained in part (a) satisfies ∇×A=F. Is divergenceless? [This was a very asymmetrical construction, and it would be surprising if it were-although we know that there exists a vector whose curl is F and whose divergence is zero.]

(c) As an example, let F=yx^+zy^+xz^. Calculate , and confirm that ∇×A=F. (For further discussion, see Prob. 5.53.)

Suppose you have two infinite straight line chargesλ, a distance d apart, moving along at a constant speed υ(Fig. 5.26). How great would have tobe in order for the magnetic attraction to balance the electrical repulsion? Work out the actual number. Is this a reasonable sort of speed?

The magnetic field on the axis of a circular current loop (Eq. 5.41) is far from uniform (it falls off sharply with increasing z). You can produce a more nearly uniform field by using two such loops a distanced apart (Fig. 5.59).

(a) Find the field (B) as a function of z, and show that ∂B∂zis zero at the point midway between them (z=0)

(b) If you pick d just right, the second derivative ofBwill also vanish at the midpoint. This arrangement is known as a Helmholtz coil; it's a convenient way of producing relatively uniform fields in the laboratory. Determine dsuch that

∂2B/∂z2=0at the midpoint, and find the resulting magnetic field at the center.

A magnetic dipole m⇶Ä=m0z^ is situated at the origin, in an otherwiseuniform magnetic field B⇶Ä=B0z^ . Show that there exists a spherical surface, centered at the origin, through which no magnetic field lines pass. Find the radius of this sphere, and sketch the field lines, inside and out.

(a) Prove that the average magnetic field, over a sphere of radius R, due to steady currents inside the sphere, is

Bave=μ042m˙4

where mbis the total dipole moment of the sphere. Contrast the electrostatic result, Eq. 3.105. [This is tough, so I'll give you a start:

Bave=14Ï€3R3fBd

Write BUas ∇×A, and apply Prob. 1.61(b). Now put in Eq. 5.65, and do the surface integral first, showing that

∫1rd43,

(b) Show that the average magnetic field due to steady currents outside the sphere is the same as the field they produce at the center.

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