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Most spin-1/2 fermions, including electrons and helium-3 atoms, have nonzero magnetic moments. A gas of such particles is therefore paramagnetic. Consider, for example, a gas of free electrons, confined inside a three-dimensional box. The z component of the magnetic moment of each electron is ±µa. In the presence of a magnetic field B pointing in the z direction, each "up" state acquires an additional energy of -μBB, while each "down" state acquires an additional energy of +μBB

(a) Explain why you would expect the magnetization of a degenerate electron gas to be substantially less than that of the electronic paramagnets studied in Chapters 3 and 6, for a given number of particles at a given field strength.

(b) Write down a formula for the density of states of this system in the presence of a magnetic field B, and interpret your formula graphically.

(c) The magnetization of this system is μBN↑-N↓, where Nr and N1 are the numbers of electrons with up and down magnetic moments, respectively. Find a formula for the magnetization of this system at T=0, in terms of N, µa, B, and the Fermi energy.

(d) Find the first temperature-dependent correction to your answer to part (c), in the limit T≪TF. You may assume that μBB≪kT; this implies that the presence of the magnetic field has negligible effect on the chemical potential μ. (To avoid confusing µB with µ, I suggest using an abbreviation such as o for the quantity µaB.)

Short Answer

Expert verified

(a) Magnetization of a degenerate electron,there is no restriction on electrons,every electron is change to spin.

(b) The formula of the density of states

g(ϵ)=g02ϵ-δ+g02ϵ+δ

(c) The formula for density of states

M=3NμB2B2ϵF

(d) The limit of the temperature

M=3NμB2B2ϵF1-π212kTϵF2

Step by step solution

01

Part(a) Step 1: Given information

We have to find out magnetization of a degenerate electron gas to be substantially less than that of the electronic paramagnets.

02

Part(a) Step 2:Simplify

Magnetising is very small.So, we can conclude that the a small fraction of electrons are free to filp their spin.

The fermi gas most of electrons can not flip their spin.

03

Part(b) Step 1: Given information

We have been given that g(ϵ)=g0ϵ

04

Part(b) Step 2:Simplify

Solution is as follows:

g0=π(8m)3/22h3=3N2ϵF3/2
05

Part(c) Step 1: Given information

We have been that M=μBN↑-N↓

06

Part(c) Step 2: Simplify

It will be in the form of:

M=μB2BϵF3N2ϵF3/2

M=3NμB2B2ϵF

07

Part(d) Step 1:Given information

We have to find the first temperature-dependent correction to answer to part (c) .

08

Part(d) Step 2:Simplify

The steps will be as follows:

∫-δ∞ϵ+δn¯FD(ϵ)dϵ=-23∫-δ∞(ϵ+δ)3/2∂n¯FD∂ϵdϵ

M=3NμB2B2ϵF1-π212kTϵF2

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Figure 7.37 shows the heat capacity of a Bose gas as a function of temperature. In this problem you will calculate the shape of this unusual graph.

(a) Write down an expression for the total energy of a gas of Nbosons confined to a volume V, in terms of an integral (analogous to equation 7.122).

(b) For T<Tcyou can set μ=0. Evaluate the integral numerically in this case, then differentiate the result with respect to Tto obtain the heat capacity. Compare to Figure 7.37.

(c) Explain why the heat capacity must approach 32Nkin the high- Tlimit.

(d) For T>Tcyou can evaluate the integral using the values of μcalculated in Problem 7.69. Do this to obtain the energy as a function of temperature, then numerically differentiate the result to obtain the heat capacity. Plot the heat capacity, and check that your graph agrees with Figure 7.37.

Figure 7.37. Heat capacity of an ideal Bose gas in a three-dimensional box.

At the center of the sun, the temperature is approximately 107K and the concentration of electrons is approximately 1032 per cubic meter. Would it be (approximately) valid to treat these electrons as a "classical" ideal gas (using Boltzmann statistics), or as a degenerate Fermi gas (with T≈0 ), or neither?

If you have a computer system that can do numerical integrals, it's not particularly difficult to evaluate μfor T>Tc.

(a) As usual when solving a problem on a computer, it's best to start by putting everything in terms dimensionless variables. So define t=T/Tc,c=μ/kTc,andx=ϵ/kTc. Express the integral that defines μ, equation N=∫0∞g(ϵ)1e(ϵ-μ)/kT-1dϵ, in terms of these variables, you should obtain the equation

2.315=∫0∞xdxe(x-c)/t-1

(b) According to given figure , the correct value of cwhen T=2Tc, is approximately -0.8. Plug in these values and check that the equation above is approximately satisfied.

(c) Now vary μ, holding Tfixed, to find the precise value of μfor T=2Tc. Repeat for values ofT/Tcranging from 1.2up to 3.0, in increments of 0.2. Plot a graph of μas a function of temperature.

(a) As usual when solving a problem on a computer, it's best to start by putting everything in terms of dimensionless variables. So define t=T/Tcc=μ/kTc,andx=ϵ/kTc. Express the integral that defines μ, equation 7.122, in terms of these variables. You should obtain the equation

(b) According to Figure 7.33, the correct value of cwhen T=2Tcis approximately -0.8. Plug in these values and check that the equation above is approximately satisfied.

(c) Now vary μ, holding Tfixed, to find the precise value of μfor . Repeat for values of T/Tcranging from 1.2up to 3.0, in increments of 0.2. Plot a graph of μas a function of temperature.

A ferromagnet is a material (like iron) that magnetizes spontaneously, even in the absence of an externally applied magnetic field. This happens because each elementary dipole has a strong tendency to align parallel to its neighbors. At t=0the magnetization of a ferromagnet has the maximum possible value, with all dipoles perfectly lined up; if there are Natoms, the total magnetization is typically~2μeN, where µa is the Bohr magneton. At somewhat higher temperatures, the excitations take the form of spin waves, which can be visualized classically as shown in Figure 7.30. Like sound waves, spin waves are quantized: Each wave mode can have only integer multiples of a basic energy unit. In analogy with phonons, we think of the energy units as particles, called magnons. Each magnon reduces the total spin of the system by one unit of h21rand therefore reduces the magnetization by ~2μe. However, whereas the frequency of a sound wave is inversely proportional to its wavelength, the frequency of a spin-wave is proportional to the square of 1λ.. (in the limit of long wavelengths). Therefore, since∈=hfand p=hλ.. for any "particle," the energy of a magnon is proportional

In the ground state of a ferromagnet, all the elementary dipoles point in the same direction. The lowest-energy excitations above the ground state are spin waves, in which the dipoles precess in a conical motion. A long-wavelength spin wave carries very little energy because the difference in direction between neighboring dipoles is very small.

to the square of its momentum. In analogy with the energy-momentum relation for an ordinary nonrelativistic particle, we can write ∈=p22pm*, wherem* is a constant related to the spin-spin interaction energy and the atomic spacing. For iron, m* turns out to equal 1.24×1029kg, about14times the mass of an electron. Another difference between magnons and phonons is that each magnon ( or spin-wave mode) has only one possible polarization.

(a) Show that at low temperatures, the number of magnons per unit volume in a three-dimensional ferromagnet is given by

NmV=2π2m×kTh232∫0∞xex-1dx.

Evaluate the integral numerically.

(b) Use the result of part (a) to find an expression for the fractional reduction in magnetization, (M(O)-M(T))/M(O).Write your answer in the form (T/To)32, and estimate the constantT0for iron.

(c) Calculate the heat capacity due to magnetic excitations in a ferromagnet at low temperature. You should find Cv/Nk=(T/Ti)32, where Tidiffers from To only by a numerical constant. EstimateTifor iron, and compare the magnon and phonon contributions to the heat capacity. (The Debye temperature of iron is 470k.)

(d) Consider a two-dimensional array of magnetic dipoles at low temperature. Assume that each elementary dipole can still point in any (threedimensional) direction, so spin waves are still possible. Show that the integral for the total number of magnons diverge in this case. (This result is an indication that there can be no spontaneous magnetization in such a two-dimensional system. However, in Section 8.2we will consider a different two-dimensional model in which magnetization does occur.)

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