/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none} Problem 73 Gun homicide in United States an... [FREE SOLUTION] | 91Ó°ÊÓ

91Ó°ÊÓ

Gun homicide in United States and Britain According to recent United Nations figures, the annual intentional homicide rate is 4.7 per 100,000 residents in the United States and 1.0 per 100,000 residents in Britain. a. Compare the proportion of residents of the two countries killed intentionally using the difference of proportions. Show how the results differ according to whether the United States or Britain is identified as Group 1 . b. Compare the proportion of residents of the two countries by using the relative risk. Show how the results differ according to whether the United States or Britain is identified as Group 1 . c. When both proportions are very close to \(0,\) as in this example, which measure do you think is more useful for describing the strength of association? Why?

Short Answer

Expert verified
The difference of proportions is 3.7 (or -3.7), while the relative risk is 4.7 (or ~0.213). With small proportions, relative risk is more informative.

Step by step solution

01

Difference of Proportions (US as Group 1)

To calculate the difference of proportions, subtract the proportion of homicides in Britain from that in the US. Let the US be Group 1 and Britain be Group 2. The difference is:\[D = p_1 - p_2 = 4.7 - 1.0 = 3.7 \text{ per } 100,000.\]
02

Difference of Proportions (Britain as Group 1)

Next, perform the same calculation with Britain as Group 1 and the US as Group 2. The difference is:\[D = p_1 - p_2 = 1.0 - 4.7 = -3.7 \text{ per } 100,000.\]
03

Relative Risk (US as Group 1)

Now, calculate the relative risk by dividing the homicide rate in the US by that in Britain. With the US as Group 1:\[RR = \frac{p_1}{p_2} = \frac{4.7}{1.0} = 4.7.\]
04

Relative Risk (Britain as Group 1)

Calculate the relative risk with Britain as Group 1:\[RR = \frac{p_1}{p_2} = \frac{1.0}{4.7} \approx 0.213.\]
05

Comparing Measures for Strength of Association

When the proportions are close to zero, the relative risk can better describe the strength of association because it provides a multiplicative comparison, showing how many times greater the risk is compared to the other group. The difference in proportions may not reflect the strength as clearly, due to the smaller scale of the rates.

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with 91Ó°ÊÓ!

Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Difference of Proportions
Understanding the difference of proportions is key when comparing statistical data from two or more groups. This method subtracts one proportion from another to observe the direct discrepancy between them. In the context of homicide rate analysis, we examined this difference by calculating the rate of intentional homicide in the US and Britain. When setting the US as Group 1 and Britain as Group 2, the formula looks like this:\[D = p_1 - p_2 = 4.7 - 1.0 = 3.7 \text{ per } 100,000.\]This calculation gives the numerical gap by which the US homicide proportion exceeds Britain’s. Reversing the groups changes the sign but not the magnitude:\[D = p_1 - p_2 = 1.0 - 4.7 = -3.7 \text{ per } 100,000.\]What is important here is recognizing that the sign of the result indicates which group has the higher rate, with positive indicating Group 1 is higher and negative indicating Group 2 is higher. This simple arithmetic provides a direct measure of difference but doesn't capture the relative magnitude of the rates.
Relative Risk
Relative risk offers a comparative measure that shows how many times more likely an event is to occur in one group compared to another. It essentially puts the focus on risk instead of just the difference in actual numbers. When calculating the relative risk for the homicide rates, the US and Britain can switch roles as Group 1 and Group 2. Let's start with the US as Group 1:\[RR = \frac{p_1}{p_2} = \frac{4.7}{1.0} = 4.7.\]This result means that the homicide rate in the US is 4.7 times higher than in Britain.Switching the groups, you have Britain as Group 1:\[RR = \frac{p_1}{p_2} = \frac{1.0}{4.7} \approx 0.213.\]This signifies that Britain's homicide rate is about 21.3% that of the US rate.Relative risk gives a clear picture of association strength by directly reflecting the proportional magnitude of the risk. Instead of purely numerical difference, it indicates by how much one risk exceeds the other, providing a powerful comparative insight.
Homicide Rate Analysis
Homicide rate analysis, through statistical comparisons like difference of proportions and relative risk, gives insights into the dynamics of violence across different jurisdictions. Understanding these distinctions can help inform public policy and strategic law enforcement efforts. When comparing two very low probabilities, such as homicide rates, interpretations can be misleading if just examined in isolation or through a singular metric. This is where relative risk can be more advantageous. Its multiplicative nature means that even small differences in absolute numbers can translate to large differences in relative risk, highlighting areas of concern or improvement more vividly. While the difference in proportions provides tangible context by illustrating the spread between rates, its linear nature limits the perception of risk magnitude. Policymakers often need to focus on areas with disproportionally higher risks, which is where relative risk shines by highlighting multiplicative risks that might otherwise appear innocuous. Thus, for precise analysis and informed decision-making, both concepts can serve distinct purposes based on the specific narrative one seeks to understand.

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

Market price associated with factor cost? Whether the price of mango juice will rise is a categorical variable with categories (yes, no). Another categorical variable to consider is whether the price of mangoes is rising with categories (yes, no). Would you expect these variables to be independent or associated? Explain.

Gender gap in employment? In a town, 7600 out of 8500 graduates are males. Out of 1750 graduate employees, 1620 are males. a. For these data, \(X^{2}=23.24 .\) What is its \(d f\) value, and what is its approximate sampling distribution, if \(\mathrm{H}_{0}\) is true? b. For this test, the P-value \(<0.001\). Interpret in the context of these variables. c. What decision would you make with a 0.05 significance level? Can you accept \(\mathrm{H}_{0}\) and conclude that employment is independent of gender?

Karl Pearson devised the chi-squared goodness-of-fit test partly to analyze data from an experiment to analyze whether a particular roulette wheel in Monte Carlo was fair, in the sense that each outcome was equally likely in a spin of the wheel. For a given European roulette wheel with 37 pockets (with numbers \(0,1,2, \ldots, 36\) ), consider the null hypothesis that the wheel is fair. a. For the null hypothesis, what is the probability for each pocket? b. For an experiment with 3,700 spins of the roulette wheel, find the expected number of times each pocket is selected. c. In the experiment, the 0 pocket occurred 110 times. Show the contribution to the \(X^{2}\) statistic of the results for this pocket. d. Comparing the observed and expected counts for all 37 pockets, we get \(X^{2}=34.4\) Specify the df value and indicate whether there is strong evidence that the roulette wheel is not balanced. (Hint: Recall that the \(d f\) value is the mean of the distribution.)

Serious side effects In \(2007,\) the FDA announced that the popular drug Zelnorm used to treat irritable bowel syndrome was withdrawn from the market, citing concerns about serious side effects. The analysis of several studies revealed that 13 of 11,614 patients receiving the drug had a serious side effect such as heart attack or stroke, compared to just 1 out of 7,031 on placebo. a. Construct a \(2 \times 2\) contingency table from these data. b. Compute the relative risk and interpret. c. Compute the odds ratio and interpret. d. In a letter to health care professionals, the drug maker quoted a P-value of 0.024 for the comparison between the probability of a serious side effect in the drug and placebo group. By entering the data into the Fisher's Exact Test web app (or other software), show that this is the P-value for Fisher's exact test with a two-sided alternative hypothesis. What are the conclusions at a 0.05 significance level?

Aspirin and heart attacks for women A study in the New England Journal of Medicine compared cardiovascular events for treatments of low-dose aspirin or placebo among 39,876 healthy female health eare providers for anaverage duration of about 10 years. Results indicated that women receiving aspirin and those receiving placebo did not differ for rates of a first major cardiovascular event, death from cardiovascular causes, or fatal or nonfatal heart attacks. However, women receiving aspirin had lower rates of stroke than those receiving placebo (data from N. Engl.J.Med., vol. \(352,2005, \mathrm{pp} .1293-1304) .\) \begin{tabular}{lccc} \hline \multicolumn{3}{c} { Women's Aspirin Study Data } \\ \hline Group & Mini-Stroke & Stroke & No Strokes \\ \hline Placebo & 240 & 259 & 19443 \\ Aspirin & 185 & 219 & 19530 \\ \hline \end{tabular} a. Use software to test independence. Show (i) assump- tions, (ii) hypotheses, (iii) test statistic, (iv) P-value, (v) conclusion in the context of this study. b. Describe the association by finding and interpreting the relative risk for the stroke category.

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Math Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.