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Let \({A_1},{A_2}, \ldots \) be an arbitrary infinite sequence of events, and let \({B_1},{B_2}, \ldots \)be another infinite sequence of events defined as follows: \({B_1} = {A_1}\), \({B_2} = {A_1}^c \cap {A_2}\), \({B_3} = {A_1}^c \cap {A_2}^c \cap {A_3}\), \({B_4} = {A_1}^c \cap {A_2}^c \cap {A_3}^c \cap {A_4}\),鈥rove that

\(\Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^n {{A_i}} } \right) = \sum\limits_{i = 1}^n {\Pr \left( {{B_i}} \right)} \)for \(n = 1,2,3, \ldots \)

and that

\(\Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^\infty {{A_i}} } \right) = \sum\limits_{i = 1}^\infty {\Pr \left( {{B_i}} \right)} \)

Short Answer

Expert verified

\(\Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^\infty {{A_i}} } \right) = \sum\limits_{i = 1}^\infty {\Pr \left( {{B_i}} \right)} \)

Step by step solution

01

Given the information

Let\({A_1},{A_2}, \ldots \)be an arbitrary infinite sequence of events.

Let\({B_1},{B_2}, \ldots \)be another infinite sequence of events.

\({B_1} = {A_1}\), \({B_2} = {A_1}^c \cap {A_2}\), \({B_3} = {A_1}^c \cap {A_2}^c \cap {A_3}\), \({B_4} = {A_1}^c \cap {A_2}^c \cap {A_3}^c \cap {A_4}\),鈥

02

Proof of theorem stated in the question

By using the principle of mathematical induction:

Put i=2,

Therefore,

\(\begin{aligned}{c}\Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^2 {{A_i}} } \right) &= \Pr \left( {{A_1} \cup {A_2}} \right)\\ &= \Pr \left( {{A_1}} \right) + \Pr \left( {{A_2}} \right) - \Pr \left( {{A_1} \cap {A_2}} \right)\\ &= \Pr \left( {{B_1}} \right) + \Pr \left( {{A_1}^c \cap {A_2}} \right)\\ &= \Pr \left( {{B_1}} \right) + \Pr \left( {{B_2}} \right)\\ &= \sum\limits_{i = 1}^2 {\Pr \left( {{B_i}} \right)} \end{aligned}\)

That is,

\(\Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^2 {{A_i}} } \right) = \sum\limits_{i = 1}^2 {\Pr \left( {{B_i}} \right)} \)

Assume that it is true for n=k.

Therefore,

\(\Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^k {{A_i}} } \right) = \sum\limits_{i = 1}^k {\Pr \left( {{B_i}} \right)} \)

We need to check whether it is true for n=k+1.

\(\begin{aligned}{c}\Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^{k + 1} {{A_i}} } \right) &= \Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^k {{A_i} \cup {A_{k + 1}}} } \right)\\ &= \Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^k {{A_i}} } \right) + \Pr \left( {{A_{k + 1}}} \right) - \Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^k {{A_i}} \cap {A_{k + 1}}} \right)\\ &= \Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^k {{A_i}} } \right) + \Pr \left( {{{\left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^k {{A_i}} } \right)}^c} \cap {A_{k + 1}}} \right)\\ &= \Pr \left( {{B_k}} \right) + \Pr \left( {{A_1}^c \cap {A_2}^c \cap {A_3}^c \ldots \cap {A_k}^c \cap {A_{k + 1}}} \right)\\ &= \Pr \left( {{B_k}} \right) + \Pr \left( {{B_{k + 1}}} \right)\\ &= \sum\limits_{i = 1}^{k + 1} {\Pr \left( {{B_{k + 1}}} \right)} \end{aligned}\)

That is:

\(\Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^{k + 1} {{A_i}} } \right) = \sum\limits_{i = 1}^{k + 1} {\Pr \left( {{B_i}} \right)} \)

Hence by the principle of mathematical induction:

\(\Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^n {{A_i}} } \right) = \sum\limits_{i = 1}^n {\Pr \left( {{B_i}} \right)} \)

03

Proof of next part:

\(\begin{aligned}{c}Pr\left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^\infty {{A_i}} } \right) &= Pr\left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^n {{A_i}} \bigcup\limits_{k = n + 1}^\infty {{A_k}} } \right)\\ &= Pr\left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^n {{A_i}} } \right) + Pr\left( {\bigcup\limits_{k = n + 1}^\infty {{A_k}} } \right) - Pr\left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^n {{A_i}} \cap \bigcup\limits_{k = n + 1}^\infty {{A_k}} } \right)\\ &= \sum\limits_{i = 1}^n {\Pr \left( {{{\mathop{\rm B}\nolimits} _i}} \right)} + Pr\left( {{{\left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^n {{A_i}} } \right)}^c} \cap \bigcup\limits_{k = n + 1}^\infty {{A_k}} } \right)\\ &= \sum\limits_{i = 1}^n {\Pr \left( {{{\mathop{\rm B}\nolimits} _i}} \right)} + Pr\left( {\bigcup\limits_{k = n + 1}^\infty {{A_k}} } \right)\\ &= \sum\limits_{i = 1}^n {\Pr \left( {{{\mathop{\rm B}\nolimits} _i}} \right)} + \sum\limits_{k = n + 1}^\infty {\Pr \left( {{{\mathop{\rm B}\nolimits} _k}} \right)} \\ &= \sum\limits_{i = 1}^\infty {\Pr \left( {{{\mathop{\rm B}\nolimits} _i}} \right)} \end{aligned}\)

Hence,

\(\Pr \left( {\bigcup\limits_{i = 1}^\infty {{A_i}} } \right) = \sum\limits_{i = 1}^\infty {\Pr \left( {{B_i}} \right)} \)

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Question: Suppose that \({{\bf{X}}_{\bf{1}}}{\bf{,}}...{\bf{,}}{{\bf{X}}_{\bf{n}}}\) form a random sample from a distribution for which the pdf. f (x|胃 ) is as follows:

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Prove that for all positive integers n and k \(\left( {n \ge k} \right)\) ,

\(\left( {^n{C_k}} \right) + \left( {^n{C_{k - 1}}} \right) = \left( {^{n + 1}{C_k}} \right)\)

Suppose that 40 percent of the students in a large population are freshmen, 30 percent are sophomores, 20 percent are juniors, and 10 percent are seniors .Suppose that10 students are selected at random from the population, and let X1, X2, X3, X4 denote, respectively, the numbers of freshmen, sophomores, juniors, and seniors that are obtained.

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A physicist makes 25 independent measurements of the specific gravity of a certain body. He knows that the limitations of his equipment are such that the standard deviation of each measurement is 蟽 units.

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