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Give an example to show that a universal conditional statement is not logically equivalent to its inverse.

Short Answer

Expert verified
Consider the propositions P(x): "x is even" and Q(x): "x is divisible by 4". The universal conditional statement is \(S_1:\) "For all x, if x is even then x is divisible by 4". The inverse statement is \(S_2:\) "For all x, if x is not even then x is not divisible by 4". Let x = 6; \(S_1\) is false and \(S_2\) is true, showing that \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) are not logically equivalent.

Step by step solution

01

Define the propositions P(x) and Q(x)

Let's take P(x) to be "x is even", and Q(x) to be "x is divisible by 4". We will use these propositions to form both a universal conditional statement and its inverse.
02

Form the universal conditional statement

Using the propositions P(x) and Q(x), we can form a universal conditional statement "For all x, if x is even (P(x)) then x is divisible by 4 (Q(x))". Let's represent this statement as \(S_1\): \(S_1:\) "For all x, if x is even then x is divisible by 4".
03

Form the inverse statement

To create the inverse of the universal conditional statement, we need to negate both P(x) and Q(x), resulting in the statement "For all x, if x is not even then x is not divisible by 4". Let's represent this statement as \(S_2\): \(S_2:\) "For all x, if x is not even then x is not divisible by 4".
04

Test the statements for logical equivalence

To check if the statements are logically equivalent, we will see if there exists a counterexample where both statements have different truth values. Let x = 6. It is an even number but it is not divisible by 4. - In the case of \(S_1\), since x is even (P(x) is true) but not divisible by 4 (Q(x) is false), this makes the statement "If x is even then x is divisible by 4" false. - In the case of \(S_2\), since x is even (not P(x) is false) and not divisible by 4 (not Q(x) is true), the statement "If x is not even then x is not divisible by 4" is true (due to the behavior of the conditional, "false implies true" is true). Thus, we have shown a counterexample where the universal conditional statement \(S_1\) is not logically equivalent to its inverse \(S_2\), as they have different truth values for the same input (x = 6).

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Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Logical Equivalence
Understanding logical equivalence is crucial in the study of formal logic and reasoning. Two statements are said to be logically equivalent if, and only if, they have the same truth value in every possible scenario. This means that no matter what the circumstances or the values being substituted into the statements, both statements will either be true or false together.

For a straightforward example, consider the two statements: 'If it rains, the ground is wet,' and 'If the ground is not wet, then it did not rain.' Assuming that there are no other factors making the ground wet, these statements are logically equivalent because they bear the same implication about the relationship between rain and the wetness of the ground. This is generally tested for using truth tables or by demonstrating that one statement can be derived from another using valid logical steps.
Inverse Conditional Statement
In contrast to logical equivalence, an inverse conditional statement results from negating both the hypothesis and conclusion of an original conditional statement. For example, if the original statement is 'If the weather is cold (P), then I will wear a coat (Q),' its inverse is 'If the weather is not cold (not P), then I will not wear a coat (not Q).'

It's essential to note that an original conditional statement is not always logically equivalent to its inverse. The truth of one does not guarantee the truth of the other, as the relationship between the hypothesis and conclusion may not be bidirectional. This is why the exercise to provide a counterexample can be so useful - it clearly demonstrates the lack of logical equivalence between a statement and its inverse by identifying a scenario in which the two differ in truth value.
Counterexample
The use of a counterexample is a powerful technique in mathematical logic to disprove a claim, such as the supposed logical equivalence between two statements. By finding just one instance in which the claim does not hold, the argument can be invalidated.

In our exercise, the number 6 serves as a counterexample to disprove the logical equivalence between the universal conditional statement 'If x is even then x is divisible by 4' and its inverse 'If x is not even then x is not divisible by 4.' The number 6 is even, which satisfies the hypothesis of the first statement but does not meet the criterion of being divisible by 4, rendering the first statement false. However, the inverse statement does not even consider the number 6, as it only deals with numbers that are not even, demonstrating that the truth conditions for both statements are not the same.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Let \(R(m, n)\) be the predicate "lf \(m\) is a factor of \(n^{2}\) then \(m\) is a factor of \(n, "\) with domain for both \(m\) and \(n\) being the set \(\mathbf{Z}\) of integers. a. Explain why \(R(m, n)\) is false if \(m=25\) and \(n=10\). b. Give values different from those in part (a) for which \(R(m, n)\) is false. c. Explain why \(R(m, n)\) is true if \(m=5\) and \(n=10\).

Use the facts that the negation of a \(\forall\) statement is a \(\exists\) statement and that the negation of an if-then statement is an and statement to rewrite each of the statements \(42-45\) without using the word sufficient or necessary. Having a large income is not a necessary condition for a person to be happy.

The notation \(\exists !\) stands for the words "there exists a unique." Thus, for instance, " \(\exists ! x\) such that \(x\) is prime and \(x\) is even" means that there is one and only one even prime number. Which of the following statements are true and which are false? Explain. a. \(\exists !\) real number \(x\) such that \(\forall\) real numbers \(y, x y=y\). b. \(\exists !\) integer \(x\) such that \(1 / x\) is an integer. c. \(\forall\) real numbers \(x, \exists !\) real number \(y\) such that \(x+y=0\).

Give an example to show that a universal conditional statement is not logically equivalent to its inverse. Earning a grade of \(\mathrm{C}\) - in this course is a sufficient condition for it to count toward graduation.

Some of the arguments in 7-18 are valid by universal modus ponens or universal modus tollens; others are invalid and exhibit the converse or the inverse error. State which are valid and which are invalid. Justify your answers. If a number is even, then twice that number is even. The number \(2 n\) is even, for a particular number \(n\). The particular number \(n\) is even.

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