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In Example3a, what is the probability that someone has an accident in the second year given that he or she had no accidents in the first year?

Short Answer

Expert verified

The probability that someone has an accident in the second year given that he or she had no accidents in the first year is0.24864.

Step by step solution

01

Given information

In Example 3asomeone has an accident in the second year given that he or she had no accidents in the first year.

02

Solution

Let Abe the possibility that the policyholder is accident prone and A1be the event that the policyholder will have an accident within a year of purchasing the policy.

The tree diagram is given below,

Thus,

PA∣A1c=PA∩A1cPA1c

=0.3×0.60.3×0.6+0.7×0.8

=0.180.74

=0.2432

Then,

PAc∣A1c=PAc∩A1cPA1c

=0.7×0.80.3×0.6+0.7×0.8

=0.560.74

=0.7568

03

solution 

Let A2be the event that the policy holder will have an accident in the second year.

The tree diagram will be,

The probability that a person has a casualty in the second year given that he or she kept no accident in the first year is,

PA2∣A1c=PA2∣A∩A1c+PA2∣Ac∩A1c

=0.4×PA∣A1c+0.2×PAc∣A1c

=0.4×0.2432+0.2×0.7568

=0.24864

04

Final answer

The probability that someone has an accident in the second year given that he or she had no accidents in the first year is0.24864.

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