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If the mean and the variance of a binomial variate \(\mathrm{X}\) are 2 and 1 respectively, then the probability that \(X\) takes a value greater than or equal to one is : [Online April 11, 2015] (a) \(\frac{9}{16}\) (b) \(\frac{3}{4}\) (c) \(\frac{1}{16}\) (d) \(\frac{15}{16}\)

Short Answer

Expert verified
The probability that \(X\) takes a value greater than or equal to one is \(\frac{15}{16}\) (option d).

Step by step solution

01

Understand Binomial Distribution Parameters

A binomial variate \(X\) has parameters \(n\) (number of trials) and \(p\) (probability of success). The mean \( \mu = np \) and the variance \( \sigma^2 = np(1-p) \). In this problem, we are given that \( \mu = 2 \) and \( \sigma^2 = 1 \).
02

Set Up Equations for Mean and Variance

We have two equations: \( np = 2 \) and \( np(1-p) = 1 \). These equations relate the parameters \(n\) and \(p\) of the binomial distribution.
03

Solve for Probability of Success \(p\)

Substitute \( np = 2 \) into the equation \( np(1-p) = 1 \). We get \( 2(1-p) = 1 \). Solve this equation to find \(p\).\[ 2 - 2p = 1 \] \[ 2p = 1 \] \[ p = \frac{1}{2} \]
04

Solve for Number of Trials \(n\)

Using \(np = 2\) and \(p = \frac{1}{2}\), substitute \(p\) back to find \(n\).\[ n \left( \frac{1}{2} \right) = 2 \] \[ n = 4 \]
05

Calculate P(X ≥ 1)

The probability that \(X\) is greater than or equal to 1 is \(1 - P(X = 0)\). For \(X = 0\), substitute \(n = 4\) and \(p = \frac{1}{2}\) into the binomial probability formula: \(P(X = 0) = \binom{4}{0} \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^0 \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^4\). \(P(X \, = \, 0) = \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^4 = \frac{1}{16}\). Therefore, \(P(X \, \geq \, 1) = 1 - \frac{1}{16} = \frac{15}{16}\).

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Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Probability of Success
In a binomial distribution, the probability of success, denoted as \( p \), is the chance of a single trial resulting in a success. Understanding this probability is crucial to solving problems involving binomial distributions. Let's say we are conducting an experiment that can result in either a success or failure, like tossing a coin. The probability of success in each trial will directly impact the overall results we calculate.
In the original exercise, we were given that the mean \( \mu \) of a binomial distribution is 2, and the variance \( \sigma^2 \) is 1. These values relate to the probability of success \( p \) and the number of trials \( n \). We use the relationships:
  • Mean: \( \mu = np \)
  • Variance: \( \sigma^2 = np(1-p) \)
By substituting \( np = 2 \) into \( np(1-p) = 1 \) and solving, we find that the probability of success \( p \) is \( \frac{1}{2} \).
This small number may seem simple, but it plays a huge role in telling us the likelihood of success in any given trial within the distribution.
Mean and Variance
The mean and variance of a binomial distribution offer insightful information about the distribution's characteristics. The mean, \( \mu \), is essentially the expected number of successes in \( n \) trials. It's calculated as \( \mu = np \), where \( n \) is the number of trials, and \( p \) is the probability of success.
Variance, shown as \( \sigma^2 \), measures the dispersion or spread of the distribution. In a binomial distribution, it's calculated as \( \sigma^2 = np(1-p) \). A lower variance indicates that the results are tightly clustered around the mean, while a higher variance suggests a wider spread of results.
In the given exercise, the mean \( \mu \) was 2, and the variance \( \sigma^2 \) was 1. These numbers allowed us to derive both the probability of success and the number of trials:
  • From \( np = 2 \), we used \( p = \frac{1}{2} \) to calculate the number of trials \( n = 4 \).
This connection between mean and variance is critical in fully understanding the nature of a binomial distribution and predicting outcomes.
Probability Calculation
Calculating probabilities in a binomial distribution often revolves around determining specific outcome probabilities through the binomial formula. The probability of any specific outcome \( X = k \) in our distribution is given by:
  • \( P(X = k) = \binom{n}{k} p^k (1-p)^{n-k} \)
Here, \( \binom{n}{k} \) is a combination representing the number of ways to choose \( k \) successes from \( n \) trials.
In the original exercise, we aimed to calculate the probability that \( X \) is greater than or equal to 1, i.e., \( P(X \geq 1) \). As a shortcut, we may calculate the complement \( 1 - P(X = 0) \). Therefore, we analyzed the likelihood of no successes \( X = 0 \) and found:
  • \( P(X = 0) = \binom{4}{0} \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^0 \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^4 = \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^4 = \frac{1}{16} \)
This resulted in \( P(X \geq 1) = 1 - \frac{1}{16} = \frac{15}{16} \), revealing a high probability of achieving at least one success in the trials.
Understanding these calculations is vital for anyone working with binomial probabilities as they guide predictions and decisions.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

For an initial screening of an admission test, a candidate is given fifty problems to solve. If the probability that the candidate can solve any problem is \(\frac{4}{5}\), then the probability that he is unable to solve less than two problems is: [April 12, 2019 (II)] (a) \(\frac{201}{5}\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)^{49}\) (b) \(\frac{316}{25}\left(\frac{4}{5}\right)^{48}\) (c) \(\frac{54}{5}\left(\frac{4}{5}\right)^{49}\) (d) \(\frac{164}{25}\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)^{48}\)

Minimum number of times a fair coin must be tossed so that the probability of getting at least one head is more than \(99 \%\) is : \(\quad\) [April 10, 2019 (II)] (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 7

A dice is tossed 5 times. Getting an odd number is considered a success. Then the variance of distribution of success is (a) \(8 / 3\) (b) \(3 / 8\) (c) \(4 / 5\) (d) \(5 / 4\)

Consider 5 independent Bernoulli's trials each with probability of success \(p\). If the probability of at least one failure is greater than or equal to \(\frac{31}{32}\), then \(p\) lies in the interval (a) \(\left(\frac{3}{4}, \frac{11}{12}\right]\) (b) \(\left[0, \frac{1}{2}\right]\) (c) \(\left(\frac{11}{12}, 1\right]\) (d) \(\left(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{3}{4}\right]\)

Two cards are drawn successively with replacement from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Let \(\mathrm{X}\) denote the random variable of number of aces obtained in the two drawn cards. Then \(\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{X}=1)+\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{X}=2)\) equals: \([\mathrm{Jan} 09, \mathbf{2 0 1 9}(\mathrm{I})]\) (a) \(49 / 169\) (b) \(52 / 169\) (c) \(24 / 169\) (d) \(25 / 169\)

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