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(a) Can you show that the orbital angular momentum of an electron in any given direction (e.g., along the z-axis) is always less than or equal to its total orbital angular momentum? In which cases would the two be equal to each other? (b) Is the result in part (a) true for a classical object, such as a spinning top or planet?

Short Answer

Expert verified

From the equationsL=l(l+1)h,Lz=mlh we conclude thatL>Lz, except l=0, and in classical objects angular momentum is not an exception but any vector quantity has magnitude always larger or equal to one of its components. They are equal when the direction of angular momentum is totally in that given direction where all the other components are zero.

Step by step solution

01

Definition of momentum

The term momentum may be defined as the product of mass and its velocity.

02

Explain the reason

The equations L=l(l+1)h,Lz=mlhl=0, the value ofml=0,±1,±2.....±l we conclude thatL>Lz, except l=0 and in classical objects angular momentum is not an exception but any vector quantity has magnitude always larger or equal to one of its components. They are equal when the direction of angular momentum is totally in that given direction where all the other components are zero.

Hence, show that the orbital angular momentum of an electron in any given direction is always less than or equal to its total orbital angular momentum and they are equal when the direction of angular momentum is totally in that given direction where all the other components are zero and in classical objects angular momentum is not an exception but any vector quantity has magnitude always larger or equal to one of its components.

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