/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none} Q46P Imagine a bead of mass m that sl... [FREE SOLUTION] | 91Ó°ÊÓ

91Ó°ÊÓ

Imagine a bead of mass m that slides frictionlessly around a circular wire ring of circumference L. (This is just like a free particle, except that Ψ(x+L)=Ψ(x)find the stationary states (with appropriate normalization) and the corresponding allowed energies. Note that there are two independent solutions for each energy En-corresponding to clockwise and counter-clockwise circulation; call themΨn+(x) andΨn-(x) How do you account for this degeneracy, in view of the theorem in Problem 2.45 (why does the theorem fail, in this case)?

Short Answer

Expert verified

The conclusion is that this theorem fails because:

(1) Ψdoes not go to zero at infinity

(2) x is restricted to a finite range

(3) we are unable to determine the constant K

Step by step solution

01

Define the Schrödinger equation

The equation for the time-dependent Schrödinger equation is,

ihddt|Ψ(t)>=H^|Ψ(t)>

One coordinate, x, is all that is required to describe a bead's location on a ring because the ring is in a two-dimensional plane. The next step is to solve the Schrödinger equation for the wave function in one dimension Ψ(x, t).

02

Step 2: Measured the value of x in the given circumference

The value of x is determined around the circumference.

Here given equation is:

-h22md2ψdx2=Eψd2ψdx2=-k2ψ,

where k =2mEh

ψx=Aeikx+Be-ikxAeikxeiKL+Be-ikxeiKL=Aeikx+Be-ikxAeikL+Be-ikL=A+B......(1)


Now,

Aeiπ/2eikL+Be-iπ/2e-ikL=Aeiπ/2+Be-iπ/2iAeikL-iBe-ikL=iA-iBAeikL-iBe-ikL=A-B.....(2)

Add equations (1) and (2), and we get,

2AeikL=2A

03

Step 3: Now normalize the given equation

When A= 0 ,eikL=1,kL=2nπ, n is an integer.

If A = 0, then Be-ikL=B .

This leads to the same conclusions.

Now, every positive n has two solutions ψn+x=Aei2nπx/L and ψn-x=Aei2nπx/L.

For n = 0 , there is just one solution:

∫0Lψ±2dx=1A=B=1/L

Any other solution will be a linear combination of these as:

ψn±x=1Le±i2nπx/LEn=2n2π2h2mL2,n=0,1,2,3,4,...

Hence, we conclude that this theorem fails because:

(1)ψ does not go to zero at infinity

(2) x is restricted to a finite range

(3) we are unable to determine the constant K

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with 91Ó°ÊÓ!

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

This is a strictly qualitative problem-no calculations allowed! Consider the "double square well" potential (Figure 2.21). Suppose the depth V0and the width a are fixed, and large enough so that several bound states occur.

(a) Sketch the ground state wave function Ψ1and the first excited state localid="1658211858701" Ψ2(i) for the case b = 0 (ii) forb≈aand (iii) for b≫a

(b) Qualitatively, how do the corresponding energies(E1andE2)and vary, as b goes from 0 to ? Sketch E1(b)and E2(b)on the same graph.

(c) The double well is a very primitive one-dimensional model for the potential experienced by an electron in a diatomic molecule (the two wells represent the attractive force of the nuclei). If the nuclei are free to move, they will adopt the configuration of minimum energy. In view of your conclusions in (b), does the electron tend to draw the nuclei together, or push them apart? (Of course, there is also the internuclear repulsion to consider, but that's a separate problem.)

A particle in the infinite square well has the initial wave function

ψ(X,0)={Ax,0≤x≤a2Aa-x,a2≤x≤a

(a) Sketch ψ(x,0), and determine the constant A

(b) Findψ(x,t)

(c) What is the probability that a measurement of the energy would yield the valueE1 ?

(d) Find the expectation value of the energy.

Show that there is no acceptable solution to the Schrodinger equation for the infinite square well with E=0orE<0(This is a special case of the general theorem in Problem 2.2, but this time do it by explicitly solving the Schrodinger equation, and showing that you cannot meet the boundary conditions.)

Show that

Ψ(x,t)=(mӬπh)1/4exp[-mӬ2hx2+a221+e-2iӬt+ihtm-2axe-iӬt]

satisfies the time-dependent Schrödinger equation for the harmonic oscillator potential (Equation 2.43). Here a is any real constant with the dimensions of length. 46

(b) Find|Ψ(x,t)|2 and describe the motion of the wave packet.

(c) Compute <x> and <p> and check that Ehrenfest's theorem (Equation 1.38) is satisfied.

Derive Equations 2.167 and 2.168.Use Equations 2.165 and 2.166 to solve C and D in terms of F:

C=(sin(la)+iklcos(la))eikaF;D=(cos(la)−iklsin(la))eikaF

Plug these back into Equations 2.163 and 2.164. Obtain the transmission coefficient and confirm the equation 2.169

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Physics Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.