Chapter 12: Problem 2
Since \(f(-x)=-x \cos (-x)=-x \cos x=-f(x), f(x)\) is an odd function.
Short Answer
Step by step solution
Key Concepts
These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.
/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none}
Learning Materials
Features
Discover
Chapter 12: Problem 2
Since \(f(-x)=-x \cos (-x)=-x \cos x=-f(x), f(x)\) is an odd function.
These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.
All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.
Get started for free
The eigenfunctions are \(\sin \alpha_{n} x\) where \(\tan \alpha_{n}=-\alpha_{n} .\) Thus $$\begin{aligned} \left\|\sin \alpha_{n} x\right\|^{2} &=\int_{0}^{1} \sin ^{2} \alpha_{n} x d x=\frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{1}\left(1-\cos 2 \alpha_{n} x\right) d x \\ &=\left.\frac{1}{2}\left(x-\frac{1}{2 \alpha_{n}} \sin 2 \alpha_{n} x\right)\right|_{0} ^{1}=\frac{1}{2}\left(1-\frac{1}{2 \alpha_{n}} \sin 2 \alpha_{n}\right) \\ &=\frac{1}{2}\left[1-\frac{1}{2 \alpha_{n}}\left(2 \sin \alpha_{n} \cos \alpha_{n}\right)\right] \\ &=\frac{1}{2}\left[1-\frac{1}{\alpha_{n}} \tan \alpha_{n} \cos \alpha_{n} \cos \alpha_{n}\right] \\ &=\frac{1}{2}\left[1-\frac{1}{\alpha_{n}}\left(-\alpha_{n} \cos ^{2} \alpha_{n}\right)\right]=\frac{1}{2}\left(1+\cos ^{2} \alpha_{n}\right). \end{aligned}$$
Since \(f(x)\) is not defined for \(x<0\), it is neither even nor odd.
$$\begin{array}{l}a_{0}=\frac{2}{\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin x d x=\frac{4}{\pi} \\\a_{n}=\frac{2}{\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin x \cos n x d x=\frac{1}{\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi}[\sin (n+1) x-\sin (n-1) x] d x=\frac{2\left[(-1)^{n}+1\right]}{\pi\left(1-n^{2}\right)} \quad \text { for } n=2,3,4, \ldots \\\b_{n}=\frac{2}{\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin x \sin n x d x=\frac{1}{\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi}[\cos (n-1) x-\cos (n+1) x] d x=0 \quad \text { for } n=2,3,4, \ldots\end{array}$$ $$\begin{array}{l}a_{1}=\frac{1}{\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin 2 x d x=0 \\\b_{1}=\frac{2}{\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin ^{2} x d x=1 \\\f(x)=\sin x \\\f(x)=\frac{2}{\pi}+\frac{2}{\pi} \sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n}+1}{1-n^{2}} \cos n x \end{array}$$
Since \(f(-x)=e^{-x}-e^{x}=-f(x), f(x)\) is an odd function.
$$\begin{array}{l}a_{0}=2 \int_{0}^{1}\left(x^{2}+x\right) d x=\frac{5}{3} \\\a_{n}=2 \int_{0}^{1}\left(x^{2}+x\right) \cos n \pi x d x=\left.\frac{2\left(x^{2}+x\right)}{n \pi} \sin n \pi x\right|_{0} ^{1}-\frac{2}{n \pi} \int_{0}^{1}(2 x+1) \sin n \pi x d x=\frac{2}{n^{2} \pi^{2}}\left[3(-1)^{n}-1\right] \\\b_{n}=2 \int_{0}^{1}\left(x^{2}+x\right) \sin n \pi x d x=-\left.\frac{2\left(x^{2}+x\right)}{n \pi} \cos n \pi x\right|_{0} ^{1}+\frac{2}{n \pi} \int_{0}^{1}(2 x+1) \cos n \pi x d x\end{array}$$ $$\begin{array}{l}=\frac{4}{n \pi}(-1)^{n+1}+\frac{4}{n^{3} \pi^{3}}\left[(-1)^{n}-1\right] \\\f(x)=\frac{5}{6}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2}{n^{2} \pi^{2}}\left[3(-1)^{n}-1\right] \cos n \pi x \\\f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{4}{n \pi}(-1)^{n+1}+\frac{4}{n^{3} \pi^{3}}\left[(-1)^{n}-1\right]\right) \sin n \pi x\end{array}$$
What do you think about this solution?
We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.