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A positive charge is passing through an electromagnetic field in which \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are directed towards \(y\)-axis and \(z\)-axis, respectively. If a charged particle passes through the region undeviated, then its velocity is/are represented by (here \(a, b\), and \(c\) are constant) (A) \(\vec{v}=\frac{E}{B} \hat{i}+a \hat{j}\) (B) \(\vec{v}=\frac{E}{B} \hat{i}+b \hat{k}\) (C) \(\vec{v}=\frac{E}{B} \hat{i}+c \hat{i}\) (D) \(\vec{v}=\frac{E}{B} \hat{i}\)

Short Answer

Expert verified
The correct answer is (B) \( \vec{v} = \frac{E}{B} \hat{i} + b \hat{k} \), where \(b = v_z\), as it matches the derived velocity vector form.

Step by step solution

01

\( \vec{F} = q(\vec{E} + \vec{v} \times \vec{B}) \) where \( \vec{F} \) is the Lorentz force, \(q\) is the charge of the particle, \( \vec{E} \) is the electric field, \( \vec{v} \) is the velocity of the particle, and \( \vec{B} \) is the magnetic field. If the particle is not deflected, the net force experienced must be zero. #Step 2: Substitute given values for \( \vec{E} \) and \( \vec{B} \) into the Lorentz force equation# We are given that the electric field and magnetic field are directed along the \(y\)-axis and \(z\)-axis, respectively. Therefore, we can write the electric and magnetic fields as:

\( \vec{E} = E \hat{j} \) and \( \vec{B} = B \hat{k} \) Substituting these values into the Lorentz force equation, we get:
02

\( \vec{F} = q\left( E \hat{j} + \vec{v} \times B \hat{k} \right) \) #Step 3: Set the Lorentz force equation to zero and analyze the particle's velocity components# Since the charged particle is not deflected, there should be no net force acting on it:

\( 0 = q\left( E \hat{j} + \vec{v} \times B \hat{k} \right) \) Now we need to consider the velocity components of the particle. The particle will have three components of velocity, represented by \( \vec{v} = v_x \hat{i} + v_y \hat{j} + v_z \hat{k} \). #Step 4: Calculate cross product of \( \vec{v} \) and \( \vec{B} \) # To move forward, let's determine the cross product term in the Lorentz force equation:
03

\( \vec{v} \times \vec{B} = (v_x \hat{i} + v_y \hat{j} + v_z \hat{k}) \times (B \hat{k}) \) After performing the cross product, we obtain:

\( \vec{v} \times \vec{B} = -v_x B \hat{j} + v_y B \hat{i} \) #Step 5: Substitute cross product result into the Lorentz force equation and analyze the components# Now we can substitute the cross product result into the Lorentz force equation:
04

\( 0 = q\left( E \hat{j} - v_x B \hat{j} + v_y B \hat{i} \right) \) To ensure the net force is zero, the coefficients of \( \hat{i} \) and \( \hat{j} \) must be separately equal to zero. So, we have:

\(q v_y B = 0\) and \(q (E - v_x B) = 0\). Since \(q\) and \(B\) are not zero, we can deduce the following:
05

\(v_y = 0\) and \(v_x = \frac{E}{B}\). The particle's velocity vector can then be expressed as:

\( \vec{v} = \frac{E}{B} \hat{i} + 0 \hat{j} + v_z \hat{k} \) #Step 6: Compare the resulting velocity vector with given choices# Looking at the velocity vector, we derive that it can be expressed as \( \vec{v} = \frac{E}{B} \hat{i} + v_z \hat{k} \). Comparing this with the given choices, the correct answer is:
06

(B)

\( \vec{v} = \frac{E}{B} \hat{i} + b \hat{k} \), where \(b = v_z\), as it matches the derived velocity vector form.

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