Exercise 5.1. For the symmetric random walk, consider the first passage time
\(\tau_{m}\) to the level \(m\). The random variable \(\tau_{2}-\tau_{1}\) is the
number of steps required for the random walk to rise from level 1 to level 2 ,
and this random variable has the same distribution as \(\tau_{1}\), the number
of steps required for the random walk to rise from level 0 to level 1.
Furthermore, \(\tau_{2}-\tau_{1}\) and \(\tau_{1}\) are independent of one
another; the latter depends only on the coin tosses \(1,2, \ldots, \tau_{1}\),
and the former depends only on the coin tosses \(\tau_{1}+1, \tau_{1}+2,
\ldots, \tau_{2}\).
(i) Use these facts to explain why
$$
\mathbf{E} \alpha^{{\top}}=\left(\mathbb{E} \alpha^{\tau_{1}}\right)^{2} \text
{ for all } \alpha \in(0,1)
$$
(ii) Without using (5.2.13), explain why for any positive integer \(m\) we must
have
$$
\mathbb{E} \alpha^{\top m}=\left(\mathbf{E} \alpha^{\eta}\right)^{m} \text {
for all } \alpha \in(0,1)
$$
(iii) Would equation (5.7.1) still hold if the random walk is not symmetric?
Explain why or why not.