Chapter 2: Q32Q (page 93)
Show that \({I_n}A = A\) when \(A\) is \(m \times n\) matrix. (Hint: Use the (column) definition of \({I_n}A\).)
Short Answer
The matrix equation \(A{I_n} = A\) is shown.
/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none}
Learning Materials
Features
Discover
Chapter 2: Q32Q (page 93)
Show that \({I_n}A = A\) when \(A\) is \(m \times n\) matrix. (Hint: Use the (column) definition of \({I_n}A\).)
The matrix equation \(A{I_n} = A\) is shown.
All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.
Get started for free
3. Find the inverse of the matrix \(\left( {\begin{aligned}{*{20}{c}}{\bf{8}}&{\bf{5}}\\{ - {\bf{7}}}&{ - {\bf{5}}}\end{aligned}} \right)\).
In exercise 11 and 12, mark each statement True or False.Justify each answer.
a. If \(A = \left[ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}{{A_{\bf{1}}}}&{{A_{\bf{2}}}}\end{array}} \right]\) and \(B = \left[ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}{{B_{\bf{1}}}}&{{B_{\bf{2}}}}\end{array}} \right]\), with \({A_{\bf{1}}}\) and \({A_{\bf{2}}}\) the same sizes as \({B_{\bf{1}}}\) and \({B_{\bf{2}}}\), respectively then \(A + B = \left[ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}{{A_1} + {B_1}}&{{A_{\bf{2}}} + {B_{\bf{2}}}}\end{array}} \right]\).
b. If \(A = \left[ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}{{A_{{\bf{11}}}}}&{{A_{{\bf{12}}}}}\\{{A_{{\bf{21}}}}}&{{A_{{\bf{22}}}}}\end{array}} \right]\) and \(B = \left[ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}{{B_1}}\\{{B_{\bf{2}}}}\end{array}} \right]\), then the partitions of \(A\) and \(B\) are comfortable for block multiplication.
Give a formula for \({\left( {ABx} \right)^T}\), where \({\bf{x}}\) is a vector and \(A\) and \(B\) are matrices of appropriate sizes.
Show that if the columns of Bare linearly dependent, then so are the columns of AB.
Suppose Ais an \(n \times n\) matrix with the property that the equation \[A{\mathop{\rm x}\nolimits} = 0\] has at least one solution for each b in \({\mathbb{R}^n}\). Without using Theorem 5 or 8, explain why each equation Ax = b has in fact exactly one solution.
What do you think about this solution?
We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.