/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none} Problem 12 . (a) Show that the integral \(\... [FREE SOLUTION] | 91Ó°ÊÓ

91Ó°ÊÓ

. (a) Show that the integral \(\int_{1}^{\infty} x^{-1} \ln x d x\) does not converge. (b) Show that if \(\alpha>1\), then \(\int_{1}^{\infty} x^{-\alpha} \ln x d x=1 /(\alpha-1)^{2}\).

Short Answer

Expert verified
The first integral does not converge and the value of the second integral for \(\alpha > 1\) is \(\frac{1}{(\alpha -1)^2}\)

Step by step solution

01

Show that the first integral does not converge

Use the comparison test for improper integrals. For this, compare the integral \( \int_{1}^{\infty} x^{-1} \ln x \, dx \) with \(\int_{1}^{\infty} x^{-1} \, dx\). The integral \(\int_{1}^{\infty} x^{-1} \, dx \) is a divergent integral as it evaluates to \(\ln \infty\), which is infinite. Since for \( x>1 \) we have \(\ln x > 0\), it follows that \(x^{-1}\ln x >x^{-1} \), for \( x>1 \). Hence, the given integral is larger than a divergent integral, so it also diverges.
02

Setup for showing the second integral

For \(\alpha > 1\), we want to evaluate the integral \(\int_{1}^{\infty} x^{-\alpha} \ln x \, dx\), We choose to use integration by parts to solve this integral. Recall, the formula for integration by parts is \(\int u v \, dx = u V - \int V du \), where \(u= \ln x ,dv = x^{-\alpha} dx\), we can then find \(v = -\frac{1}{(\alpha -1)x^{\alpha -1}}\) and \(du = x^{-1} dx\).
03

Show the value of the second integral

After applying integration by parts on the integral \(\int_{1}^{\infty} x^{-\alpha} \ln x \, dx\), one ends up with the equation \(\int_{1}^{\infty} x^{-\alpha} \ln x \, dx= -\frac{1}{\alpha -1} [x^{1-\alpha} \ln x]_{1}^{\infty} - \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\alpha - 1}x^{-\alpha} dx\). Evaluating the first term yields 0 and the definite integral can be evaluated as \(\frac{1}{(\alpha -1)^2}\), therefore, removing the minus sign, one finds that the integral evaluates to \(\frac{1}{(\alpha -1)^2}\).

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with 91Ó°ÊÓ!

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

If \(f_{k}(x):=k\) for \(x \in[1 / k, 2 / k]\) and \(f_{k}(x):=0\) elsewhere on \([0,2]\), show that \(f_{k}(x) \rightarrow 0\) but that \(\int_{0}^{2} f_{k}=1\)

Show that the following functions belong to \(\mathcal{R}^{*}[0,1]\) by finding a function \(F_{k}\) that is continuous on \([0,1]\) and such that \(F_{k}^{\prime}(x)=f_{k}(x)\) for \(x \in[0,1] \backslash E_{k}\), for some finite set \(E_{k}\). (a) \(f_{1}(x):=(x+1) / \sqrt{x} \quad\) for \(x \in(0.1]\) and \(f_{1}(0):=0\). (b) \(f_{2}(x):=x / \sqrt{1-x} \quad\) for \(x \in[0,1)\) and \(f_{2}(1):=0\). (c) \(f_{3}(x):=\sqrt{x} \ln x \quad\) for \(x \in(0,1]\) and \(f_{3}(0):=0\). (d) \(f_{4}(x):=(\ln x) / \sqrt{x} \quad\) for \(x \in(0,1]\) and \(f_{4}(0):=0\). (e) \(f_{5}(x):=\sqrt{(1+x) /(1-x)}\) for \(x \in[0,1)\) and \(f_{5}(1):=0\) (f) \(f_{6}(x):=1 /(\sqrt{x} \sqrt{2-x}) \quad\) for \(x \in(0,1]\) and \(f_{6}(0):=0\).

Let \(\delta\) be a gauge on \([a, b]\) and let \(\dot{\mathcal{P}}\) be a \(\delta\) -fine partition of \([a, b]\). (a) Show that there exists a \(\delta\) -fine partition \(\mathcal{Q}_{1}\) such that (i) no tag belongs to two subintervals in \(\dot{\mathcal{Q}}_{1}\), and (ii) \(S\left(f ; \dot{\mathcal{Q}}_{1}\right)=S(f ; \dot{\mathcal{P}})\) for any function \(f\) on \([a, b]\). (b) Does there exist a \(\delta\) -fine partition \(Q_{2}\) such that (j) every tag belongs to two subintervals in \(\dot{\mathcal{Q}}_{2}\), and (jj) \(S\left(f ; \mathcal{Q}_{2}\right)=S(f ; \dot{\mathcal{P}})\) for any function \(f\) on \([a, b]\) ? (c) Show that there exists a \(\delta\) -fine partition \(\mathcal{Q}_{3}\) such that ( \(\mathrm{k}\) ) every tag is an endpoint of its subinterval, and (kk) \(S\left(f ; \dot{\mathcal{Q}}_{3}\right)=S(f ; \dot{\mathcal{P}})\) for any function \(f\) on \([a, b]\).

Discuss the following sequences of functions and their integrals on \([0,1]\). Evaluate the limit of the integrals, when possible. (a) \(e^{-k x}\). (b) \(e^{-k x} / x\) (c) \(k x e^{-k x}\), (d) \(k^{2} x e^{-k x}\), (e) \(k x e^{-k^{2} x^{2}}\) (f) \(k x e^{-k x^{2}}\).

Let \(f \in \mathcal{R}^{*}[a, \gamma]\) for all \(\gamma \geq a\). Show that \(f \in R^{*}[a, \infty)\) if and only if for every \(\varepsilon>0\) there exists \(K(\varepsilon) \geq a\) such that if \(q>p \geq K(\varepsilon)\), then \(\left|\int_{\rho}^{q} f\right|<\varepsilon\).

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Math Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.