/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none} Problem 137 Prove that if a function has an ... [FREE SOLUTION] | 91Ó°ÊÓ

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Prove that if a function has an inverse function, then the inverse function is unique.

Short Answer

Expert verified
The inverse function of a given function is unique.

Step by step solution

01

Definition of a Function and its Inverse

By definition, a function \(f: A \rightarrow B\) has an inverse \(f^{-1}: B \rightarrow A\) if and only if for every \(b \in B\), there exists a unique \(a \in A\) such that \(f(a) = b\). Similarly, \(f^{-1}(b) = a\) whenever \(f(a) = b\).
02

Assume two inverse functions

Now, let's assume that a function \(f\) has two inverse functions, denoted as \(g\) and \(h\). That means for every \(b \in B\), there exists \(a \in A\) such that \(f(a) = b\) and both \(g(b) = a\) and \(h(b) = a\).
03

Conclude the uniqueness of the inverse function

From Step 2, both \(g(b)\) and \(h(b)\) return the same result \(a\), meaning \(g = h\). Therefore, the inverse function of \(f\) is unique.

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