Just because a function possesses derivatives of all orders on an interval \(I\)
does not guarantee that some Taylor polynomial approximates \(f\) in a
neighborhood of some point of \(I\). Let
$$
f(x)=\left\\{\begin{array}{ll}
e^{-\frac{1}{x^{2}}}, & \text { if } x \neq 0 \\
0, & \text { if } x=0
\end{array}\right.
$$
(a) Show that \(f\) has derivatives of all orders and that \(f^{(k)}(0)=0\) for
each \(k=0,1,2, \ldots\)
(b) Write down the polynomial \(P_{n}\) with \(c=0\).
(c) Write down Lagrange's form for the remainder of order \(n .\) Observe its
magnitude and take the time to understand why \(P_{n}\) is not a good
approximation for \(f\) on any interval \(I\), no matter how large \(n\) is.