Chapter 1: Problem 29
$\lim _{\mathrm{n} \rightarrow \infty}\left(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{\mathrm{n}^{2}-2}+\frac{4^{\mathrm{n}}(-1)^{\mathrm{n}}}{2^{\mathrm{n}}-1}\right)^{-1}$ is equal to (A) 2 (B) (C) 0 (D) None of these
/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none}
Learning Materials
Features
Discover
Chapter 1: Problem 29
$\lim _{\mathrm{n} \rightarrow \infty}\left(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{\mathrm{n}^{2}-2}+\frac{4^{\mathrm{n}}(-1)^{\mathrm{n}}}{2^{\mathrm{n}}-1}\right)^{-1}$ is equal to (A) 2 (B) (C) 0 (D) None of these
All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.
Get started for free
Consider the function \(f(x)=\left(\frac{a x+1}{b x+2}\right)^{x}\) where \(a^{2}+b^{2} \neq 0\) then \(\lim f(x)\) (A) exists for all values of \(a\) and \(b\) (B) is zero for \(\mathrm{a}<\mathrm{b}\) (C) is non existent for \(\mathrm{a}>\mathrm{b}\) (D) is e \({ }^{-\left(\frac{1}{a}\right)}\) or \(e^{-\left(\frac{1}{b}\right)}\) if \(a=b\)
Assertion (A): $\lim _{x \rightarrow \pi / 2} \frac{\sin \left(\cot ^{2} x\right)}{(\pi-2 x)^{2}}=\frac{1}{2}$ Reason $(\mathbf{R}): \lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin \theta}{\theta}=1\( and \)\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{\tan \theta}{\theta}=1\(, where \)\theta$ is measured in radians.
The value of $\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{(\tan (\\{x\\}-1)) \sin \\{x\\}}{\\{x\\}(\\{x\\}-1)}\(, where \)\\{x\\}$ denotes the fractional part function, is (A) is 1 (B) is tan 1 (C) is \(\sin 1\) (D) is non-existent
The value of $\lim _{\mathrm{x} \rightarrow 0}\left[\frac{|\sin \mathrm{x}|}{|\mathrm{x}|}\right]$, (where [.] denotes greatest integer function) is (A) 0 (B) does not exists (C) \(-1\) (D) 1
Let \(\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})\) be defined for all \(\mathrm{x} \in \mathrm{R}\) such that $\lim _{x \rightarrow 0}\left[f(x)+\ln \left(1-\frac{1}{\mathrm{e}^{f(x)}}\right)-\ln (f(x))\right]=0$ then \(\mathrm{f}(0)\) is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
What do you think about this solution?
We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.