/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none} Problem 26 The value of \(\lim _{x \rightar... [FREE SOLUTION] | 91Ó°ÊÓ

91Ó°ÊÓ

The value of \(\lim _{x \rightarrow \infty}\left(x^{4}(\ln x)^{16}\right)\) is (A) (B) 0 (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\) (D) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)

Short Answer

Expert verified
Answer: The limit of the function as x approaches infinity is infinite.

Step by step solution

01

Analyzing the Behavior of \(x^4\) as \(x\) approaches infinity

As x approaches infinity, \(x^4\) will also tend towards infinity because raising a number to a power increases its value.
02

Analyzing the Behavior of \((\ln x)^{16}\) as \(x\) approaches infinity

When x approaches infinity, the natural logarithm \(\ln x\) also tends towards infinity. And as we raise infinity to the power of 16, it will become an even larger infinity.
03

Combining the Behaviors of \(x^4\) and \((\ln x)^{16}\)

As both \(x^4\) and \((\ln x)^{16}\) tend towards infinity, their product will also tend to infinity. Therefore, we have: $$\lim _{x \rightarrow \infty}\left(x^{4}(\ln x)^{16}\right) = \infty$$ From the given options, there is no answer choice that represents infinity, so the correct option is not specified.

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with 91Ó°ÊÓ!

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

$\sum_{r=1}^{\infty} \frac{r^{3}+\left(r^{2}+1\right)^{2}}{\left(r^{4}+r^{2}+1\right)\left(r^{2}+r\right)}$ is equal to (A) \(3 / 2\) (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinite

The value of $\lim _{x \rightarrow 2}\left(\left(\frac{x^{3}-4 x}{x^{3}-8}\right)^{-1}-\left(\frac{x+\sqrt{2 x}}{x-2}-\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{x}-\sqrt{2}}\right)^{-1}\right)$ is (A) \(1 / 2\) (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) None of these

$\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} \frac{(\ell n(1+x)-\ell \operatorname{n} 2)\left(3.4^{x-1}-3 x\right)}{\left[(7+x)^{1 / 3}-(1+3 x)^{1 / 2}\right] \cdot \sin (x-1)}$ equals (A) \(\frac{9}{4}\) en \(\frac{4}{\mathrm{e}}\) (B) \(\frac{9}{4}\) en \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{4}\) (C) \(\frac{4}{9} \ell \mathrm{n} \frac{\mathrm{e}}{4}\) (D) None of these

If \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{x^{2 n} \sin ^{n} x}{x^{2 n}-\sin ^{2 n} x}\) is a non zero finite number, then n must be equal to (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) none of these

Assertion \((A):\) A circle \(C_{1}\) is inscribed in an equilateral triangle \(\mathrm{ABC}\) with side length \(2 .\) Then circle \(\mathrm{C}_{2}\) is inscribed tangent to BC, CA and circle \(\mathrm{C}_{1}\). An infinite sequence of such circles is constructed, each tangent to \(\mathrm{BC}, \mathrm{CA}\) and the previous circle. The sum of areas of all the infinitely many circles is \(\frac{5 \pi}{8}\). Reason ( \(\mathbf{R}\) ) : Radius of \(\mathrm{C}_{1}\) is \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\), that of \(\mathrm{C}_{2}\) is \(\frac{1}{3 \sqrt{3}}\) and radius of the remaining circle each shrink by a factor \(\frac{1}{3}\).

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Math Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.