Suppose the dollar-denominated interest rate is \(5 \%\), the yen-denominated
interest rate is \(1 \%\) (both rates are continuously compounded), the spot
exchange rate is \(0.009 \$ / ¥,\) and the price of a dollar-denominated
European call to buy one yen with 1 year to expiration and a strike price of
\(\$ 0.009\) is \(\$ 0.0006\)
a. What is the dollar-denominated European yen put price such that there is no
arbitrage opportunity?
b. Suppose that a dollar-denominated European yen put with a strike of \(\$
0.009\) has a premium of \(\$ 0.0004 .\) Demonstrate the arbitrage.
c. Now suppose that you are in Tokyo, trading options that are denominated in
yen rather than dollars. If the price of a dollar-denominated at-themoney yen
call in the United States is \(\$ 0.0006,\) what is the price of a yen-
denominated at-the-money dollar call- an option giving the right to buy one
dollar, denominated in yen- -in Tokyo? What is the relationship of this answer
to your answer to (a)? What is the price of the at-the-money dollar put?