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Unlevered Cost of Equity Beginning with the cost of capital equation-that is: $$ R_{\mathrm{waCC}}=\frac{S}{B+S} R_S+\frac{B}{B+S} R_B $$ show that the cost of equity capital for a levered firm can be written as follows: $$ R_S=R_0+\frac{B}{S}\left(R_0-R_p\right) $$

Short Answer

Expert verified
The cost of equity capital for a levered firm, \(R_S\), can be derived from the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) formula by introducing the unlevered cost of equity \((R_0)\) and the cost of debt for the levered firm's shareholders \((R_p)\). By isolating \(R_S\) and substituting appropriate expressions, we obtain the desired equation: $$ R_S = R_0 + \frac{B}{S}(R_0 - R_p) $$ where \(R_0\) is the unlevered cost of equity, \(S\) and \(B\) are the market values of the firm's equity and debt, respectively, and \(R_p\) is the cost of debt for the levered firm's shareholders.

Step by step solution

01

Write down the WACC formula for levered firm

First, let's write down the given Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) formula for a levered firm: $$ R_{waCC} = \frac{S}{B+S}R_S + \frac{B}{B+S}R_B $$ where \(R_S\) = Cost of equity capital for the levered firm \(R_B\) = Cost of debt capital \(S\) and \(B\) are the market values of the firm's equity and debt, respectively.
02

Isolate \(R_S\) in the WACC formula

We need to isolate \(R_S\) in the WACC formula to derive the desired relationship. To do this, let's first multiply both sides of the equation by \((B + S)\) to get rid of the fractions: $$ (B + S)R_{waCC} = SR_S + BR_B \qquad (1) $$ Now let's rearrange the equation to isolate \(R_S\): $$ SR_S = (B + S)R_{waCC} - BR_B \qquad (2) $$ Then divide both sides by S: $$ R_S = \frac{(B + S)R_{waCC}}{S} - \frac{BR_B}{S} $$
03

Introduce \(R_0\) and \(R_p\)

Now we need to introduce the unlevered cost of equity \((R_0)\) and the cost of debt for the levered firm's shareholders \((R_p)\). By definition, \(R_0\) is the cost of equity for an unlevered firm with the same risk as the levered firm, and it is equal to the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) of the levered firm. Therefore, we can substitute \(R_0\) for \(R_{waCC}\): $$ R_S = \frac{(B + S)R_0}{S} - \frac{BR_B}{S} $$ Similarly, \(R_p\) is the cost of debt for the levered firm's shareholders, and thus \(R_B = R_0 - R_p\). We can substitute this expression for \(R_B\) in the equation: $$ R_S = \frac{(B + S)R_0}{S} - \frac{B(R_0 - R_p)}{S} $$
04

Simplify the equation

The equation can be further simplified by expanding the brackets and then collecting terms: $$ R_S = \frac{BR_0 + SR_0}{S} - \frac{BR_0 - BR_p}{S} $$ $$ R_S = \frac{SR_0 + BR_p}{S} $$ Now, we have derived the cost of equity capital for a levered firm \(R_S\) as follows: $$ R_S = R_0 + \frac{B}{S}(R_0 - R_p) $$ This is the desired equation for the cost of equity capital for a levered firm as a function of the unlevered cost of equity, the market values of the firm's equity and debt, and the cost of debt for the levered firm's shareholders.

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Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Unlevered Cost of Equity
In corporate finance, the unlevered cost of equity, often represented as \( R_0 \), is a pivotal concept, especially when differentiating between levered and unlevered firms. Essentially, it represents the cost of equity of a company that operates without any debt. This cost of equity reflects the expected rate of return that investors would require for investing in an all-equity financed company.
If we think about it, without the influence of debt, the firm's risk is only attributable to its business operations, without any financial risk added by leverage. Thus, \( R_0 \) serves as an important baseline, offering a clear picture of the firm's underlying business risk. Levered firms, on the other hand, have to account for debt; therefore, the cost of equity for such entities tends to be higher, since equity holders require additional returns for the added financial risk.
Understanding \( R_0 \) helps analysts evaluate how the introduction of debt might impact overall firm risk and equity costs. It's a crucial measure for comparing firms with varying capital structures and understanding how levered and unlevered firms might behave under different financial contexts.
Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)
The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is a central concept when it comes to firm valuation and investment decisions. WACC represents the average rate that a company is expected to pay for financing its assets, factoring in both equity and debt. It is mathematically expressed as:

\[ R_{waCC} = \frac{S}{B+S} R_S + \frac{B}{B+S} R_B \]
where \( R_S \) is the cost of equity and \( R_B \) is the cost of debt, while \( S \) and \( B \) denote the market values of equity and debt, respectively.
WACC is used by firm managers and analysts to evaluate investment opportunities. If a project's return exceeds WACC, it's often considered a good investment, as it signifies that the project is generating enough returns to cover the capital costs.
Furthermore, WACC is integral to the determination of \( R_0 \), the cost of equity for an unlevered firm. In the context of levered firms, WACC accounts for the tax shield benefits that arise due to interest payments while still accounting for the weighted costs of all financing sources. This makes WACC a crucial metric for preserving the equilibrium between risk and return.
Levered and Unlevered Firms
Levered and unlevered firms differ primarily by how they are financed. A levered firm uses both debt and equity to finance its operations, whereas an unlevered firm relies solely on equity.
The presence of debt in a levered firm's capital structure introduces both financial leverage and financial risk. This occurs because debt holders have a higher claim on the company's assets than equity holders in case of liquidation. Consequently, the cost of equity in levered firms, represented as \( R_S \), tends to be higher than in unlevered firms to compensate for the additional risk. The relationship can be articulated as:

\[ R_S = R_0 + \frac{B}{S}(R_0 - R_p) \]
Here, \( R_p \) denotes the cost of debt for the firm's shareholders, and \( B \) and \( S \) indicate the market values of debt and equity, respectively.
An unlevered firm, lacking the debt element, has only business risk to manage, without the added complexity of financial risk. Such firms are often seen as less risky, which is reflected in their cost of equity, \( R_0 \).
Both types of firms have their unique advantages and considerations. Levered firms may benefit from tax shields on debt interests, potentially enhancing returns, whereas unlevered firms typically experience greater stability and less risk, improving their appeal during economic uncertainties.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

MM Proposition I with Taxes The Maxwell Company is financed entirely with equity. The company is considering a loan of \(\$ 1.4\) million. The loan will be repaid in equal installments over the next two years, and it has an 8 percent interest rate. The company's tax rate is 35 percent. According to MM Proposition I with taxes, what would be the increase in the value of the company after the loan?

Break-Even EBIT and Leverage Kolby Corp. is comparing two different capital structures. Plan I would result in 1,500 shares of stock and \(\$ 20,000\) in debt. Plan II would result in 1,100 shares of stock and \(\$ 30,000\) in debt. The interest rate on the debt is 10 percent. 1\. Ignoring taxes, compare both of these plans to an all-equity plan assuming that EBIT will be \(\$ 12,000\). The all-equity plan would result in 2,300 shares of stock outstanding. Which of the three plans has the highest EPS? The lowest? 2\. In part (a) what are the break-even levels of EBIT for each plan as compared to that for an all-equity plan? Is one higher than the other? Why? 3\. Ignoring taxes, when will EPS be identical for Plans I and II? 4\. Repeat parts (a), (b), and (c) assuming that the corporate tax rate is \(\mathbf{4 0}\) percent. Are the break-even levels of EBIT different from before? Why or why not?

Weighted Average Cost of Capital In a world of corporate taxes only, show that the \(R_{\text {WACC }}\) can be written as \(R_{\text {WACC }}=R_0 \times\left[1-t_C(B / V)\right]\).

MM Tool Manufacturing has an expected EBIT of \(\$ 42,000\) in perpetuity and a tax rate of 35 percent. The firm has \(\$ 70,000\) in outstanding debt at an interest rate of 8 percent, and its unlevered cost of capital is 15 percent. What is the value of the firm according to MM Proposition I with taxes? Should Tool change its debt-equity ratio if the goal is to maximize the value of the firm? Explain.

EBIT and Leverage Money, Inc., has no debt outstanding and a total market value of \(\$ 225,000\). Earnings before interest and taxes, EBIT, are projected to be \(\$ 19,000\) if economic conditions are normal. If there is strong expansion in the economy, then EBIT will be 30 percent higher. If there is a recession, then EBIT will be 60 percent lower. Money is considering a \(\$ 90,000\) debt issue with an 8 percent interest rate. The proceeds will be used to repurchase shares of stock. There are currently 5,000 shares outstanding. Ignore taxes for this problem. 1\. Calculate earnings per share, EPS, under each of the three economic scenarios before any debt is issued. Also calculate the percentage changes in EPS when the economy expands or enters a recession. 2\. EBIT, Taxes, and Leverage Repeat parts (a) and (b) in Problem 1 assuming Money has a tax rate of 35 percent.

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