Chapter 4: Problem 45
Complete the details of the following argument: If \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n}\) converges to a finite sum \(s\), then \(\frac{1}{2} s=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{6}+\cdots\) and \(s-\frac{1}{2} s=1+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}+\cdots\). Why does this lead to a contradiction?
Short Answer
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Key Concepts
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