/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none} Problem 28 Below we list some improper inte... [FREE SOLUTION] | 91Ó°ÊÓ

91Ó°ÊÓ

Below we list some improper integrals. Determine whether the integral converges and, if so, evaluate the integral. $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x$$

Short Answer

Expert verified
The given improper integral converges, and its value is \(\boxed{\frac{\pi}{2}}\).

Step by step solution

01

Split the integral

Split the given improper integral into two separate integrals: \[ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x = \int_{-\infty}^{0} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x + \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x \]
02

Evaluate the first integral

Evaluate the integral from -∞ to 0: \[ \int_{-\infty}^{0} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x \] We can substitute \(u = e^{x}\), and thus \(du = e^{x} dx\): \[ \int_{-\infty}^{0} \frac{1}{u+ \frac{1}{u}} \frac{du}{u} \] Now, let's rewrite and simplify the integrand: \[ \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{u^2}{u^2 + 1} du \]
03

Evaluate the second integral

Evaluate the integral from 0 to ∞: \[ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x \] We can use the same substitution as before: \(v = e^{x}\), and thus \(dv = e^{x} dx\): \[ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{v+\frac{1}{v}} \frac{dv}{v} \] Now, let's rewrite and simplify the integrand: \[ \int_{0}^{1} \frac{v^2}{v^2 + 1} dv \]
04

Combine the two integrals

Now that we have the two parts of the integral, we can combine them to find the value of the original integral: \[ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x = \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{u^2}{u^2 + 1} du + \int_{0}^{1} \frac{v^2}{v^2 + 1} dv \] Observing the symmetry, since: \[ \int_{0}^{1} \frac{v^2}{v^2 + 1} dv = \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{u^2}{u^2 + 1} du \] We have: \[ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x = 2 \int_{0}^{1} \frac{v^2}{v^2 + 1} dv \]
05

Evaluate the combined integral

Finally, let's evaluate the combined integral: \[ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x = 2 \int_{0}^{1} \frac{v^2}{v^2 + 1} dv = 2 \left[ \arctan(v) \right]_{0}^{1} = 2\left[\arctan(1) - \arctan(0) \right] = 2(\frac{\pi}{4} - 0) = \boxed{\frac{\pi}{2}} \] Thus, the improper integral converges, and its value is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\).

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with 91Ó°ÊÓ!

Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Convergence of Integrals
Improper integrals often involve evaluating an integral over an infinite interval, such as from negative infinity to positive infinity. Convergence determines whether such an integral results in a finite value.
In the given problem, the integral from \(-\infty\) to \(\infty\) is examined for convergence. Splitting the integral into two separate parts helps to better analyze the behavior on each interval separately. It involves dividing the integral at a point (here, at 0) to evaluate the segments individually.
If both the integrals are finite, the original improper integral converges. If even one of the two integrals diverges (goes to infinity or does not reach a finite number), the original integral is said not to converge. Therefore, checking each part is crucial in determining the overall convergence.
Substitution Method
Substitution is a common method used to simplify integrals, especially when dealing with complex functions. By changing the variables, we often turn a challenging integral into a more manageable one.
For improper integrals, substitution simplifies the evaluation by introducing a new variable that is easier to work with. In the provided solution, both substitutions \(u = e^x\) and \(v = e^x\) are used. These substitutions convert the variable from \(x\) to \(u\) or \(v\), making the integrals easier to solve as they simplify the function being integrated.
After substitution, remember to adjust the limits of integration according to the new variable. This method not only simplifies the process but also helps in revealing symmetry in the integrals more clearly.
Symmetry in Integrals
Symmetry in integrals can greatly simplify calculations. When a function exhibits symmetry, it often allows us to reduce the amount of work needed to evaluate an integral.
In this exercise, symmetry is evident after substitution. The integral from \(0\) to \(1\) turns out to be the same as the one from \(1\) to \(\infty\). Thus, examining symmetry can lead to concluding that these two parts are equal, simplifying the expression to \(2\) times one of the integrals.
Recognizing symmetry ensures we don't repeat calculations unnecessarily. This is both efficient and insightful, showing how the function behaves over the interval and how parts of the integral relate to each other.
Arctangent Function
The arctangent function \(\arctan(x)\) is a common result encountered when evaluating integrals involving rational expressions. It arises naturally when handling expressions in the form of \(\frac{1}{x^2+1}\).
In this solution, after simplifying and recognizing the appropriate integral form, \(\arctan\) appears as it precisely fits the structure of \(\int \frac{1}{1+x^2} dx\), which equals \(\arctan(x)\) plus a constant.
Its nature as a bounded and continuous function makes it particularly useful in calculating definite integrals, such as the one in this problem. The result is elegantly combined in the form of known \(\arctan\) values, simplifying the particular calculation to \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), the value of the integral. Understanding the properties of \(\arctan\) is vital for solving a wide range of integrals efficiently.

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

Give the first six terms of the sequence and then give the \(n\) th term. $$a_{1}=1, \quad a_{2}=3 ; \quad a_{n+1}=3 a_{n}-2 n-1, \quad n \geq 2$$.

Lit \(S=[\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{2+\sqrt{2}}, \sqrt{2+\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2}}}, \ldots\\} .\) Thus \(a_{1}-\sqrt{2}\) and for further subscripts \(a_{x+1}=\sqrt{2+a_{n}}\). (a) Use a graphing utility or CAS to calculate the numbers \(a_{1}, a_{2}, a_{3}, \cdots, a_{10}\). (b) Show by induction that \(a_{n}<2\) for all \(n\). (c) What is the least upper bound of \(S\) ? (d) In the definition of \(S\), replace 2 by an arbitrary positive number \(c .\) What is the least upper bound in this case?

Show that the hyperbolic arc \(y=(b / a) \sqrt{x^{2}-a^{2}}\) is asymptotic to the line \(y=(b / a) x\) as \(x \rightarrow \infty\)

Use mathematical induction to prove the following assertions. If \(a_{1}=1\) and \(a_{n+1}=a_{n}-\frac{1}{n(n+1)},\) then \(a_{n}=\frac{1}{n}\).

The set \(S\) of rational numbers \(x\) with \(x^{2}<2\) has rational upper bounds but no least rational upper bound. The argument goes like this. Suppose that \(S\) has a least rational upper bound and call it \(x_{0} .\) Then either $$x_{0}^{2}=2, \quad \text { or } \quad x_{0}^{2}>2, \quad \text { or } \quad x_{0}^{2} < 2.$$ (a) Show that \(x_{0}^{2}=2\) is impossible by showing that if \(x_{0}^{2}=\) 2, then \(x_{0}\) is not rational. (b) Show that \(x_{0}^{2}>2\) is impossible by showing that if \(x_{0}^{2}>2,\) then there is a positive integer \(n\) for which \(\left(x_{0}-\frac{1}{n}\right)^{2}>2,\) which makes \(x_{0}-\frac{1}{n}\) a rational upper bound for \(S\) that is less than the least rational upper bound \(x_{0}\). (c) Show that \(x_{0}^{2}<2\) is impossible by showing that if \(x_{0}^{2}<2,\) then there is a positive integer \(n\) for which \(\left(x_{0}+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{2}<2 .\) This places \(x_{0}+\frac{1}{n}\) in \(S\) and show's that \(x_{0}\) cann0ot be an upper bound for \(S\).

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Math Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.