Chapter 7: Problem 83
Refer to the summary box (Partial Fraction Decompositions) and evaluate the following integrals. $$\int \frac{2}{x\left(x^{2}+1\right)^{2}} d x$$
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Chapter 7: Problem 83
Refer to the summary box (Partial Fraction Decompositions) and evaluate the following integrals. $$\int \frac{2}{x\left(x^{2}+1\right)^{2}} d x$$
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Use integration by parts to evaluate the following integrals. $$\int_{0}^{\infty} x e^{-x} d x$$
The work required to launch an object from the surface of Earth to outer space is given by \(W=\int_{R}^{\infty} F(x) d x,\) where \(R=6370 \mathrm{km}\) is the approximate radius of Earth, \(F(x)=G M m / x^{2}\) is the gravitational force between Earth and the object, \(G\) is the gravitational constant, \(M\) is the mass of Earth, \(m\) is the mass of the object, and \(G M=4 \times 10^{14} \mathrm{m}^{3} / \mathrm{s}^{2}.\) a. Find the work required to launch an object in terms of \(m.\) b. What escape velocity \(v_{e}\) is required to give the object a kinetic energy \(\frac{1}{2} m v_{e}^{2}\) equal to \(W ?\) c. The French scientist Laplace anticipated the existence of black holes in the 18th century with the following argument: If a body has an escape velocity that equals or exceeds the speed of light, \(c=300,000 \mathrm{km} / \mathrm{s},\) then light cannot escape the body and it cannot be seen. Show that such a body has a radius \(R \leq 2 G M / c^{2} .\) For Earth to be a black hole, what would its radius need to be?
Recall that the substitution \(x=a \sec \theta\) implies that \(x \geq a\) (in which case \(0 \leq \theta<\pi / 2\) and \(\tan \theta \geq 0\) ) or \(x \leq-a\) (in which case \(\pi / 2<\theta \leq \pi\) and \(\tan \theta \leq 0\) ). $$ \begin{array}{l} \text { Show that } \int \frac{d x}{x \sqrt{x^{2}-1}}= \\ \qquad\left\\{\begin{array}{ll} \sec ^{-1} x+C=\tan ^{-1} \sqrt{x^{2}-1}+C & \text { if } x>1 \\ -\sec ^{-1} x+C=-\tan ^{-1} \sqrt{x^{2}-1}+C & \text { if } x<-1 \end{array}\right. \end{array} $$
Use numerical methods or a calculator to approximate the following integrals as closely as possible. $$\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \ln (\sin x) d x=\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \ln (\cos x) d x=-\frac{\pi \ln 2}{2}$$
Consider the family of functions \(f(x)=1 / x^{p},\) where \(p\) is a real number. For what values of \(p\) does the integral \(\int_{0}^{1} f(x) d x\) exist? What is its value?
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