Chapter 8: Problem 37
Are the statements true or false? Give an explanation for your answer. If \(p(x)=x e^{-x^{2}}\) for all \(x>0\) and \(p(x)=0\) for \(x \leq 0\) then \(p(x)\) is a probability density function.
Short Answer
Expert verified
The statement is false; the integral is \(\frac{1}{2}\), not 1.
Step by step solution
01
Verify Non-negativity
For a function to be a probability density function (PDF), it must be non-negative for all values of \(x\). Given that \(p(x) = xe^{-x^2}\) for \(x > 0\) and \(p(x) = 0\) for \(x \leq 0\), we observe that for \(x > 0\), both \(x\) and \(e^{-x^2}\) are positive, ensuring \(p(x) \geq 0\). Additionally, for \(x \leq 0\), \(p(x)=0\). Thus, \(p(x)\) is non-negative for all \(x\).
02
Check the Integral Property
A function \(p(x)\) is a probability density function if the integral over its entire range is 1. We need to evaluate the improper integral for \(x > 0\): \[ \int_{0}^{\infty} x e^{-x^2} \, dx. \] This can be solved using the substitution \(u = x^2\), leading to \(du = 2x \, dx\) or \(x \, dx = \frac{1}{2} \, du\). Hence, the integral becomes: \[ \frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-u} \, du, \] which simplifies to \(\frac{1}{2}\) as the integral of \(e^{-u}\) from 0 to \(\infty\) is 1. Therefore, \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} p(x) \, dx = \frac{1}{2}\), not 1.
03
Conclusion Based on the Integral Result
Since the integral of \(p(x)\) over \([-\infty, \infty]\) evaluates to \(\frac{1}{2}\) instead of 1, \(p(x)\) does not satisfy the requirement for total probability to be 1. Thus, \(p(x)\) is not a valid probability density function.
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Key Concepts
These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.
Non-negativity
For a function to be considered a probability density function (PDF), it needs to meet the criterion of non-negativity. This means that the function must have non-negative values for all possible input values of the random variable. In simple terms, a PDF cannot be negative because probabilities cannot be negative. Consider the function given in the exercise, where \( p(x) = xe^{-x^2} \) for \( x > 0 \) and \( p(x) = 0 \) for \( x \leq 0 \).
When \( x > 0 \), both \( x \) and \( e^{-x^2} \) are positive. Multiplying these positive values ensures that \( p(x) \) remains non-negative. Moreover, for \( x \leq 0 \), \( p(x) \) is defined as 0, which is non-negative. Therefore, in all cases, \( p(x) \geq 0 \), fulfilling the non-negativity requirement for a PDF.
When \( x > 0 \), both \( x \) and \( e^{-x^2} \) are positive. Multiplying these positive values ensures that \( p(x) \) remains non-negative. Moreover, for \( x \leq 0 \), \( p(x) \) is defined as 0, which is non-negative. Therefore, in all cases, \( p(x) \geq 0 \), fulfilling the non-negativity requirement for a PDF.
Improper Integral
One essential criterion for a probability density function is that its integral over the entire possible range should equal 1. This ensures that the total probability sums up to 100%, as probabilities are always fractions of a whole. Sometimes, we deal with integrals that have infinite limits, known as improper integrals.
In the provided exercise, the function \( p(x) \) is defined only for \( x > 0 \). We need to compute the integral of \( p(x) = xe^{-x^2} \) over this range, denoted as \( \int_{0}^{\infty} xe^{-x^2} \, dx \).
Solving this involves evaluating an improper integral, as the upper limit extends to infinity. After calculating, we find the resulting integral equals \( \frac{1}{2} \). This result shows the total integrated probability does not equal 1, but instead 0.5, indicating \( p(x) \) does not satisfy the integral property of a probability density function.
In the provided exercise, the function \( p(x) \) is defined only for \( x > 0 \). We need to compute the integral of \( p(x) = xe^{-x^2} \) over this range, denoted as \( \int_{0}^{\infty} xe^{-x^2} \, dx \).
Solving this involves evaluating an improper integral, as the upper limit extends to infinity. After calculating, we find the resulting integral equals \( \frac{1}{2} \). This result shows the total integrated probability does not equal 1, but instead 0.5, indicating \( p(x) \) does not satisfy the integral property of a probability density function.
Integration by Substitution
Integration by substitution is a handy mathematical technique often used to simplify complicated integrals. In essence, it allows us to swap out variables to make the integral easier to manage. It's like solving a puzzle by rearranging the pieces to reveal the picture.
In this case, we have the integral \( \int_{0}^{\infty} xe^{-x^2} \, dx \). At first glance, this is a bit complex to solve directly. To ease the process, we use substitution. Let us set a substitution where \( u = x^2 \), leading to \( du = 2x \, dx \), implying \( x \, dx = \frac{1}{2} \, du \).
Thus, the integral transforms to \( \frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-u} \, du \). This simplified integral is much easier to evaluate. The integral of \( e^{-u} \) from 0 to infinity is a common result equalling 1. Multiplying by the \( \frac{1}{2} \) factor from our substitution yields \( \frac{1}{2} \).
This process elegantly shows how substitution can transform an intimidating integral into a manageable form. However, in the context of the original problem, the final integrated value of \( \frac{1}{2} \) indicates that \( p(x) \) isn't a true probability density function.
In this case, we have the integral \( \int_{0}^{\infty} xe^{-x^2} \, dx \). At first glance, this is a bit complex to solve directly. To ease the process, we use substitution. Let us set a substitution where \( u = x^2 \), leading to \( du = 2x \, dx \), implying \( x \, dx = \frac{1}{2} \, du \).
Thus, the integral transforms to \( \frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-u} \, du \). This simplified integral is much easier to evaluate. The integral of \( e^{-u} \) from 0 to infinity is a common result equalling 1. Multiplying by the \( \frac{1}{2} \) factor from our substitution yields \( \frac{1}{2} \).
This process elegantly shows how substitution can transform an intimidating integral into a manageable form. However, in the context of the original problem, the final integrated value of \( \frac{1}{2} \) indicates that \( p(x) \) isn't a true probability density function.