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If f is a function such thatf(0)=1andf'(x)=f(x)for every value of x, find the Maclaurin series for f.

Short Answer

Expert verified

So, The Maclaurin series for the function is:

f(x)=1+x+x22!+x33!+⋯

Or, it can be written as

ex=∑i=0∞1k!xk

Step by step solution

01

given information

Let us consider the function such that that f(0)=Iandf'(x)=f(x)

So, the function must bef(x)=ex

02

calculation

Since, the general formula to calculate the Maclaurin series for the function is:

f(x)=f(0)+f'(0)x+f''(0)2!x2+f''(0)3!x3+…

Asf(0)=1, therefore f'(0),f''(0)andf''(0)are 1 .

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