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Suppose f is a polynomial of degree n and let k be some integer with 0≤k≤n. Prove that if f(x) is of the form f(x)=anxn+an-1xn-1+....+a1x+a0

Then ak=fk(0)k!where fk(x)is the k-th derivative off(x)andk!=k·(k-1)·(k-2)....2·1

Short Answer

Expert verified

We use Principal of mathematical induction to proveak=fk(0)k!where0≤k≤n

Step by step solution

01

Given information

We are given a polynomial function f(x)=anxn+an-1xn-1+....+akxk+.....+a1x+a0

We use mathematical induction to prove

When n=0

f(x)=a0

Hence LHS= RHS

Now consider that statement is true for k where 0≤k≤n

Hence the polynomial become

And

fk(x)=cknanxn-k+....+(k+1)!ak+1x+k!ak (1)

At x=0

fk(x)=k!akak=fk(x)k!

Now we prove that the statement is true for k+1

To prove it we differentiate equation 1 again

We get,

fk+1(x)=ck+1nanxn-k-1+.....+(k+1)!ak+1

At x=0

fk+1(0)=(k+1)!ak+1ak+1=fk+1(0)(k+1)!

Hence proved

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