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Show by exhibiting a counterexample that, in general, ∫f(x)g(x)dx≠∫f(x)dx∫g(x)dx. In other words, find two functions f and g such that the integral of their quotient is not equal to the quotient of their integrals.

Short Answer

Expert verified

The counterexample isf(x)=x2,g(x)=x.

Step by step solution

01

Step 1. Given Information.

The given inequality to prove is∫f(x)g(x)dx≠∫f(x)dxlg(x)dx.

02

Step 2. Conclusion.

Let the two functions be:

f(x)=x2,g(x)=x

Now, we can write,

∫f(x)g(x)dx=∫x2xdx=∫xdx=x22+C

Also,

localid="1648575504638" ∫f(x)dx∫g(x)dx==∫x2dx∫xdxTherefore,∫f(x)g(x)dx=x33+Cx22+C≠=∫f(x)dx∫g(x)dx

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