Consider the boundary value problem
$$ \frac{d^{2} \phi}{d x^{2}}+\lambda \phi=0 \quad \text { with } $$ $$
\phi(1)+\frac{d \phi}{d x}(1)=0 . $$ (a) Using the Rayleigh quotient, show
that \(\lambda \approx 0 .\) Why is \(\lambda>0\) ? (b) Prove that eigenfunctions
corresponding to different eigenvalues arc (c) Show that $$ \frac{\partial
u}{\partial t}=k \frac{\partial^{2} u}{\partial x^{2}} $$ $$ u(0,
t)-\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}(0, t)-0 $$
(b) Prove that eigenfunctions corresponding to different eigenvalues are
orthogonal.
*(c) Show that
Determine the eigenvalues graphically. Estimate the large eigenvalues.
(d) Solve
with
$$
\begin{aligned}
u(0, t)-\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}(0, t) &=0 \\
u(1, t)+\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}(1, t) &=0 \\
u(x, 0) &=f(x)
\end{aligned}
$$
You may call the relevant eigenfunctions \(\phi_{n}(x)\) and assume that they
are known.