Chapter 11: Problem 3
Let \(X\) and \(Y\) be two independent random variables, where \(X\) has a \(\operatorname{Ber}(p)\) distribution, and \(Y\) has a \(\operatorname{Ber}(q)\) distribution. When \(p=q=r\), we know that \(X+Y\) has a \(\operatorname{Bin}(2, r)\) distribution. Suppose that \(p=1 / 2\) and \(q=1 / 4 .\) Determine \(\mathrm{P}(X+Y=k)\), for \(k=0,1,2\), and conclude that \(X+Y\) does not have a binomial distribution.
Short Answer
Step by step solution
Understanding the Problem
Calculating P(X=0) and P(X=1)
Calculating P(Y=0) and P(Y=1)
Calculating P(X + Y = 0)
Calculating P(X + Y = 1)
Calculating P(X + Y = 2)
Conclusion about Distribution
Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!
-
Full Textbook Solutions
Get detailed explanations and key concepts
-
Unlimited Al creation
Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...
-
Ads-free access
To over 500 millions flashcards
-
Money-back guarantee
We refund you if you fail your exam.
Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with 91Ó°ÊÓ!
Key Concepts
These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.
Bernoulli Distribution
- If \( X \) is a random variable with a Bernoulli distribution and \( p \) is the probability of success, then \( \mathrm{P}(X = 1) = p \) and \( \mathrm{P}(X = 0) = 1 - p \).
- The expected value or mean of a Bernoulli distribution is \( p \), and the variance is \( p(1-p) \).
In the context of our problem, we have two independent random variables, \( X \) and \( Y \), each following a Bernoulli distribution. \( X \) has a parameter \( p = \frac{1}{2} \), meaning there is an equal chance of success and failure. Meanwhile, \( Y \) has a parameter \( q = \frac{1}{4} \), indicating a lower probability of success compared to failure.
Binomial Distribution
- A random variable \( Z \) that follows a binomial distribution is denoted as \( \operatorname{Bin}(n, r) \).
- The probability of obtaining exactly \( k \) successes in \( n \) trials is given by the formula \[ \mathrm{P}(Z = k) = \binom{n}{k} r^k (1-r)^{n-k}, \] where \( \binom{n}{k} \) is the binomial coefficient.
In our exercise, it's proposed that \( X+Y \) should follow a binomial distribution when \( p = q = r \). However, since \( p eq q \) in our case, where \( p = \frac{1}{2} \) and \( q = \frac{1}{4} \), the resulting distribution of \( X+Y \) does not fit the binomial model as the conditions are not met. This shows a distinctive property as the sum of independent Bernoulli random variables with different parameters doesn't form a binomial distribution.
Independent Random Variables
- For independent random variables, the probability of simultaneous events can be determined by multiplying their individual probabilities: \( \mathrm{P}(X = x \text{ and } Y = y) = \mathrm{P}(X = x) \times \mathrm{P}(Y = y) \).
- Independence is key when dealing with the sum or product of random variables, as it allows simplification in calculations due to non-interaction of events.
In the given exercise, the independence of \( X \) and \( Y \) allows us to compute the probabilities \( \mathrm{P}(X+Y = k) \) by multiplying the respective probabilities of event outcomes for \( X \) and \( Y \). This makes it possible to separately calculate and then sum up the distinct probabilities needed to analyze the distribution of \( X + Y \).