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Balls numbered 1through Nare in an urn. Suppose that n,n≤N, of them are randomly selected without replacement. Let Ydenote the largest number selected.

(a) Find the probability mass function of Y.

(b) Derive an expression for E[Y]and then use Fermat's combinatorial identity (see Theoretical Exercise 11of Chapter 1) to simplify the expression.

Short Answer

Expert verified

(a) The probability mass function ofYisP(Y=k)=k-1n-1Nn

(b)E(Y)=N+1n(n+1)

Step by step solution

01

Definition Part (a)  

A probability mass function is a cycle over the example space of a discrete arbitrary variable X which gives the probability that X is indistinguishable from a particular worth.

02

Explanation Part (a)  

Let's define the random variable Y. It marks the largest number taken out of the urn. We find that Y∈{n,…,N}.

Let's take any k∈{1,…,N}.

From the information we observe that there are Nnof all possible combinations.

If the largest number taken out is k, we are capable to choose n-1out of k-1numbers freely.

Hence

P(Y=k)=k-1n-1Nn

03

Given information Part (b)  

Balls numbered 1through Nare in an urn. Suppose that n,n≤N, of them are randomly selected without replacement. Let Ydenote the largest number select

04

Explanation Part (b)  

We have that, E(Y)=∑k=nN k⋅k−1n−1Nn=1Nn∑k=nN kk−1n−1by using the definition of expectation.

Now, find that kk−1n−1=k⋅(k−1)!(n−1)!(k−n)!=k!(n−1)!(k−n)!=1nkn

So we have the expression above is equal to 1Nn∑k=nN1nkn=1nNn∑k=nNkn

Using Fermat's combinatoric identity, we have that

∑k=nNkn=N+1n+1

05

Final answer Part (b)  

So finally, we have that

E(Y)=1Nn·N+1n+1=N+1n(n+1)

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