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Let f(x)be a continuous function defined for0≤x≤1. Consider the functions

Bn(x)=∑k=0nfknnkxk(1−x)n-k(called Bernstein polynomials) and prove that

limn→∞Bn(x)=f(x).

Hint: Let X1,X2,...be independent Bernoulli random variables with meanx. Show that

Bn(x)=Efx1+...+xnn

and then use Theoretical Exercise8.4.

Since it can be shown that the convergence of Bn(x)to f(x)is uniformx, the preceding reasoning provides a probabilistic proof of the famous Weierstrass theorem of analysis, which states that any continuous function on a closed interval can be approximated arbitrarily closely by a polynomial.

Short Answer

Expert verified

Therefore,

Ef1n∑i=1nXi→f(x),asn→∞, i.e.Bn(x)→f(x),asn→∞.

Step by step solution

01

Given Information.

f(x)be a continuous function defined for0≤x≤1.

02

Explanation.

Letf(x),0≤x≤1, be a continuous function. It is then also bounded on this interval. Let's defineBn(x), it as

Bn(x)=∑k=0nfknnkxk(1-x)n-k

We want to show thatlimn→∞Bn(x)=f(x).

LetX1,X2,…be independent Bernoulli random variables with meanEXi=x. Notice that thenX1+X2+⋯+Xnis a Binomial random variable with parameters ( n,x). Therefore, since

P∑i=1nXi=k=nkxk(1-x)n-k

we have that

Ef1n∑i=1nXi=∑k=0nfknP∑i=1nXi=k=∑k=0nfknnkxk(1-x)n-k=Bn(x).

03

Explanation.

Using The central limit theorem we have that 1∑i-1nXi-xπntends to the standard normal variable asn→∞. Therefore, for eachε>0,

P1n∑i=1nXi-x>ε=P1n∑i=1nXi-xσn>εσn=1-P1n∑i=1nXi-xσn≤εnσ=1-P1n∑i=1nXi-xσn≤εnσ≈2Φ-εnσ.

On the other hand,

limn→∞-εnσ=-∞⇒limn→∞Φ-εnσlimn→∞2Φ-εnσ=0

Hence, for eachε>0,

P1n∑i=1nXi-x>ε→0,asn→∞

Now, according to the Theoretical Exerciserole="math" localid="1649857976771" 4, we have that

Ef1n∑i=1nXi→f(x),asn→∞, i.e.Bn(x)→f(x),asn→∞.

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