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Civil engineers believe that W, the amount of weight (in units of 1000pounds) that a certain span of a bridge can withstand without structural damage resulting, is normally distributed with a mean of 400and standard deviation of40. Suppose that the weight (again, in units of 1000pounds) of a car is a random variable with a mean of 3and standard deviation.3. Approximately how many cars would have to be on the bridge span for the probability of structural damage to exceed.1?

Short Answer

Expert verified

The smallest nfor which the probability of structural damage exceeds localid="1649773556438" .1isn=117.

Step by step solution

01

Given Information.

Civil engineers believe that W, the amount of weight (in units of 1000pounds) that a certain span of a bridge can withstand without structural damage resulting, is normally distributed with a mean of 400and standard deviation of40. Suppose that the weight (again, in units of 1000pounds) of a car is a random variable with a mean of 3and a standard deviation of.3.

02

Explanation.

Let Wrepresent the amount of weight (in units of 1000pounds) that a certain span of a bridge can withstand without structural damage resulting. It is given that this random variable is normally distributed with mean μW=400and standard deviationσW=40.

Additionally, let Cirepresents the weight (in units of 1000pounds) of ith car, and let CWbe the total weight of ncars:

CW=C1+C2+⋯+Cn.

Since the weights of cars are independent random variables with mean μC=3and standard deviation σC=.3the mean and the variance of the random variable CWare:

ECW=nμC=3n,VarCW=nσC2=.09n

At first, notice that the probability of structural damage corresponds to the following probabilities:

PCW≥W=PCW-W≥0.

Therefore, let's consider the random variableCW-W. Because of the independence of Ciand also obviously of the independence between CWandW, we have:

ECW-W=ECW-E[W]=3n-400

and

VarCW-W=VarCW+Var(W)=.09n+402=.09n+1600.

03

Explanation.

The question is: how many cars would have to be on the bridge span for the probability of structural damage to ePCW-W≥0>.1?xceed .l? In other words, how large needsnto be so that

To approximate the probabilityPCW-W≥0. we use the central limit theorem and in that case, we get:

.1<PCW-W≥0=PCW-W-ECW-WVarCW-W≥0-ECW-WVarCW-W=

1-PCW-W-ECW-WVarCW-W<0-ECW-WVarCW-W=1-PCW-W-(3n-400).09n+1600<400-3n.09n+1600≈1-Φ400-3n.09n+1600⇒Φ400-3n.09n+1600<.9⇒Table 5.1 (textbook, Chapter 5)400-3n.09n+1600<1.28⇑9n2-2400.147456+157378.56<0¯⇑n∈(116.211,150.4721)

But, sincen∈ℕ, the smallest nfor which the probability of structural damage exceeds .1islocalid="1649773537203" n=117.

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