Chapter 7: Problem 7
Show that \(2.5
Short Answer
Step by step solution
Key Concepts
These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.
/*! This file is auto-generated */ .wp-block-button__link{color:#fff;background-color:#32373c;border-radius:9999px;box-shadow:none;text-decoration:none;padding:calc(.667em + 2px) calc(1.333em + 2px);font-size:1.125em}.wp-block-file__button{background:#32373c;color:#fff;text-decoration:none}
Learning Materials
Features
Discover
Chapter 7: Problem 7
Show that \(2.5
These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.
All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.
Get started for free
Prove the following for all \(x \in \mathbb{R}\) : \(\sin (\pi-x)=\sin x, \quad \sin ((\pi / 2)-x)=\cos x, \quad \sin ((\pi / 2)+x)=\cos x\) \(\cos (\pi-x)=-\cos x, \quad \cos ((\pi / 2)-x)=\sin x, \quad \cos ((\pi / 2)+x)=-\sin x\)
Let \(f:(0, \infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}\) satisfy \(f(x y)=f(x) f(y)\) for all \(x, y \in(0, \infty)\). If \(f\) is continuous at 1, show that either \(f(x)=0\) for all \(x \in(0, \infty)\), or there exists \(r \in \mathbb{R}\) such that \(f(x)=x^{r}\) for all \(x \in(0, \infty) .\) (Hint: If \(f(1) \neq 0\), then \(f(x)>0\) for all \(x \in(0, \infty)\), and so we can consider \(g=\ln \circ f \circ \exp : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}\) and use Exercise 3.4) (Compare Exercises \(1.17\) (ii) and 3.6.)
Let \(f:(0, \infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}\) be continuous and satisfy $$ \int_{1}^{x y} f(t) d t=y \int_{1}^{x} f(t) d t+x \int_{1}^{y} f(t) d t \quad \text { for all } x, y \in(0, \infty) $$ Show that \(f(x)=f(1)(1+\ln x)\) for all \(x \in(0, \infty) .\) (Hint: Consider \(F(x):=\) \(\left(\int_{1}^{x} f(t) d t\right) / x\) for \(x \in(0, \infty)\) and use Exercise \(\left.7.5 .\right)\)
For \(b \in \mathbb{R}\), consider the function \(g_{b}:(0, \infty) \rightarrow(0, \infty)\) defined by \(g_{b}(x)=\) \(x^{b}\). Show that \(g_{b_{1}} \circ g_{b_{2}}=g_{b_{1} b_{2}}=g_{b_{2}} \circ g_{b_{1}}\) for all \(b_{1}, b_{2} \in \mathbb{R}\).
Show that \(\int_{a}^{b} \sin x d x=\cos a-\cos b\) and \(\int_{a}^{b} \cos x d x=\sin b-\sin a\) for all \(a, b \in \mathbb{R}\) Deduce that \(\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin x d x=0=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \cos x d x\).
What do you think about this solution?
We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.