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Let \(A_{n}:=1+(1 / 2)+\cdots+(1 / n)\) for \(n \in \mathbb{N}\). Show that \(\left(A_{n+1}-A_{n}\right) \rightarrow 0\) as \(n \rightarrow \infty\), but \(\left(A_{n}\right)\) is not a Cauchy sequence.

Short Answer

Expert verified
We showed that \(A_{n+1}-A_{n} = \frac{1}{n+1}\) and that this difference tends to 0 as \(n\) tends to infinity. Despite this property, we demonstrated that the sequence \((A_{n})\) does not satisfy the Cauchy property, proving that it is not a Cauchy sequence.

Step by step solution

01

Compute the difference \((A_{n+1}-A_{n})\)

Note that by definition of \(A_{n}\), we have \[A_{n+1}-A_{n} = \left(1+\frac{1}{2}+\cdots+\frac{1}{n+1}\right) - \left(1+\frac{1}{2}+\cdots+\frac{1}{n}\right).\] Notice that when subtracting the terms, all of them will cancel out except for the last one, which is \(\frac{1}{n+1}\). Thus, \[A_{n+1}-A_{n} = \frac{1}{n+1}.\]
02

Show that \((A_{n+1}-A_{n}) \rightarrow 0\) as \(n \rightarrow \infty\)

Now we need to show that the difference \(\frac{1}{n+1}\) tends to 0 as \(n\) tends to infinity. Since the numerator is a constant 1, and the denominator increases without bound, we have that \[\frac{1}{n+1} \rightarrow 0 \text{ as } n \rightarrow \infty.\]
03

Define Cauchy sequence

In order to show that the sequence \((A_{n})\) is not Cauchy, let's first recall the definition of a Cauchy sequence. A sequence \((A_{n})\) is said to be Cauchy if for all \(\epsilon > 0\), there exists an \(N \in \mathbb{N}\) such that for all \(m, n > N\), we have \[|A_{m} - A_{n}| < \epsilon.\]
04

Show that \((A_{n})\) is not a Cauchy sequence

To show that \((A_{n})\) is not a Cauchy sequence, we will find an \(\epsilon > 0\) for which we cannot find an integer \(N\) satisfying the Cauchy property. Let's take \(\epsilon = 1\). We need to show that for any \(N \in \mathbb{N}\), we can find \(m, n > N\) such that \[|A_{m} - A_{n}| \geq 1.\] As a strategy, we try to find a suitable \(n\) for each choice of \(m\). We can express the difference \(|A_m-A_n|\) as a difference of sums, \[|A_m - A_n| = \left|\sum_{k=n+1}^m \frac{1}{k}\right|.\] By the definition of \(A_{n}\), each partial sum is positive and increasing. That is, \(A_m - A_n \geq 0\) for all \(m > n\). Thus, it is sufficient to consider the sum without the absolute value, \[\sum_{k=n+1}^m \frac{1}{k}.\] Now, we know that the harmonic series - i.e., the sum \(1 + \frac{1}{2} + \cdots + \frac{1}{k}\) (which are precisely the terms in the sequence \(A_{n}\)) - diverges. This means that we can always find terms with a difference greater than 1 if we sum up long enough. So, let \(m = N + t\), where \(t\) is a positive integer. Then the sum becomes \[\sum_{k=N+1}^{N+t} \frac{1}{k}.\] Since the harmonic series diverges, by choosing a large enough \(t\) (depending on \(N\)), we can make the sum above greater than or equal to 1. Therefore, we have found \(m, n > N\) with \(|A_m - A_n| \geq 1\). This means that the sequence \((A_{n})\) is not a Cauchy sequence, even though \((A_{n+1}-A_{n}) \rightarrow 0\) as \(n \rightarrow \infty\).

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Let \(x \in \mathbb{R}\) and \(x>0\). Define \(A_{n}:=1+\frac{x}{1 !}+\frac{x^{2}}{2 !}+\cdots+\frac{x^{n}}{n !} \quad\) and \(\quad B_{n}:=\left(1+\frac{x}{n}\right)^{n} \quad\) for \(n \in \mathbb{N} .\) Show that \(\left(A_{n}\right)\) and \(\left(B_{n}\right)\) are convergent and have the same limit.

If \(k \in \mathbb{N}\) and \(x \in \mathbb{R}\) with \(|x|<1\), then show that $$ \lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} n^{k} x^{n}=0. $$

Assuming only the algebraic and the order properties of \(\mathbb{R}\), and assuming that every monotonically decreasing sequence that is bounded below is convergent in \(\mathbb{R}\), establish the Completeness Property of \(\mathbb{R}\). (Hint: Consider \(S \subseteq \mathbb{R}, a_{0} \in S\), and an upper bound \(\alpha_{0}\) of \(S .\) If \(\left(a_{0}+\alpha_{0}\right) / 2\) is an upper bound of \(S\), let \(a_{1}:=a_{0}\) and \(\alpha_{1}:=\left(a_{0}+\alpha_{0}\right) / 2 ;\) otherwise, there is \(a_{1} \in S\) such that \(\left(a_{0}+\alpha_{0}\right) / 2

Let \(\left(a_{n}\right)\) and \(\left(b_{n}\right)\) be sequences such that \(\left|a_{n+1}-a_{n}\right| \leq b_{n}\) for all \(n \in \mathbb{N}\). Define $$ B_{n}:=\sum_{k=1}^{n} b_{k} \quad \text { for } n \in \mathbb{N} . $$ If \(\left(B_{n}\right)\) is convergent, then show that \(\left(a_{n}\right)\) is a Cauchy sequence and hence it is convergent.

For \(n \in \mathbb{N}\), let $$ a_{n}:=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\cdots+\frac{1}{2 n} \quad \text { and } \quad b_{n}:=\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{3}+\cdots+\frac{1}{2 n-1} $$ Show that \(a_{n} \rightarrow \infty\) and \(b_{n} \rightarrow \infty\). (Hint: Example 2.10 (iii).)

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