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Show that the reduced mass of two equal masses, \(m\), is \(m / 2\).

Short Answer

Expert verified
The reduced mass of two equal masses \( m \) is \( m/2 \).

Step by step solution

01

Understanding Reduced Mass Formula

The reduced mass, denoted by \( \mu \), of two bodies with masses \( m_1 \) and \( m_2 \) is given by the formula: \[ \mu = \frac{m_1 m_2}{m_1 + m_2} \] In this exercise, both masses are equal, so we set \( m_1 = m \) and \( m_2 = m \).
02

Substitute Equal Masses

Substitute \( m_1 = m \) and \( m_2 = m \) into the reduced mass formula:\[ \mu = \frac{m \cdot m}{m + m} \]
03

Simplify the Expression

Simplify the expression obtained in the previous step. The numerator becomes \( m^2 \) and the denominator becomes \( 2m \). The expression is:\[ \mu = \frac{m^2}{2m} \]
04

Cancel Common Factors

Cancel the common factor of \( m \) in the numerator and the denominator:\[ \mu = \frac{m^2}{2m} = \frac{m}{2} \]
05

Conclusion

Thus, the reduced mass of two equal masses, each with mass \( m \), is \( \frac{m}{2} \).

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Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Equal Masses
When dealing with the concept of reduced mass in physics, an interesting and frequently encountered scenario is when two masses are equal. In this case, both bodies in the system have the same mass value, commonly represented as \( m \). Here, we are tasked to understand how the reduced mass is derived for two equal masses.In physics, the reduced mass is a critical concept when solving problems involving two-body systems—such as molecules or celestial bodies. When both masses are identical, we have \( m_1 = m \) and \( m_2 = m \), simplifying our problem significantly. The importance of recognizing that the masses are equal can drastically simplify calculations, which is why understanding and identifying this scenario quickly can save time and reduce complexity. This knowledge provides a strong foundation for tackling diverse problems that involve equilibrium and motion in two-body systems.
Mass Calculation
Calculating the reduced mass is a straightforward exercise in substituting and simplifying if you follow the correct steps. The formula for reduced mass \( \mu \) of two bodies with masses \( m_1 \) and \( m_2 \) is:\[ \mu = \frac{m_1 m_2}{m_1 + m_2} \]When the masses are identical, just substitute the values as follows:
  • Set \( m_1 = m \) and \( m_2 = m \), where \( m \) is the mass of each object.
  • The substitution gives: \( \mu = \frac{m \times m}{m + m} \).
Such substitution leads to simpler expressions like \( \mu = \frac{m^2}{2m} \). Recognizing and understanding this step makes complex problems more approachable. After simplifying, it becomes clear that the reduced mass of two equal masses is much simpler than it might initially appear.
Physics Problem Solving
Conquering physics problems often involves breaking down complex formulas into manageable steps like in the case of reduced mass calculations. With equal masses, a critical initial step is understanding the formula and knowing how to apply it effectively. Physics revolves around order and methodology. Here's a basic outline for tackling such problems:
  • Identify the problem: Understand if the masses are equal or different.
  • Apply the relevant formula: Use the reduced mass formula as previously shown.
  • Substitute any known values: Substitute the masses into the formula appropriately.
  • Simplify: Use algebraic manipulation to simplify the expression.
By breaking problems down like this, not only is the solution process manageable, but also this strategy enhances your problem-solving skills, making it easier to handle similar problems in the future with confidence.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Calculate the value of the reduced mass of an electron in a hydrogen atom. Take the masses of the electron and proton to be \(9.109390 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{kg}\) and \(1.672623 \times 10^{-27} \mathrm{kg}\) respectively. What is the percent difference between this result and the rest mass of an electron?

Consider the transformation from Cartesian coordinates to plane polar coordinates where $$\begin{array}{ll} x=r \cos \theta & r=\left(x^{2}+y^{2}\right)^{1 / 2} \\ y=r \sin \theta & \theta=\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{y}{x}\right) \end{array}$$ If a function \(f(r, \theta)\) depends upon the polar coordinates \(r\) and \(\theta,\) then the chain rule of partial differentiation says that \\[ \left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\right)_{y}=\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial r}\right)_{\theta}\left(\frac{\partial r}{\partial x}\right)_{y}+\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial \theta}\right)_{r}\left(\frac{\partial \theta}{\partial x}\right)_{y} \\] and that \\[ \left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\right)_{x}=\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial r}\right)_{\theta}\left(\frac{\partial r}{\partial y}\right)_{x}+\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial \theta}\right)_{r}\left(\frac{\partial \theta}{\partial y}\right)_{x} \\] For simplicity, we will assume \(r\) is constant so that we can ignore terms involving derivatives with respect to \(r .\) In other words, we will consider a particle that is constrained to move on the circumference of a circle. This system is sometimes called a particle on a ring. Using Equations 1 and \(2,\) show that \\[ \left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\right)_{y}=-\frac{\sin \theta}{r}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial \theta}\right)_{r} \quad \text { and } \quad\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\right)_{x}=\frac{\cos \theta}{r}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial \theta}\right)_{r} \quad(r \text { fixed }) \\] Now apply Equation 2 again to show that \\[ \begin{aligned} \left(\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial x^{2}}\right)_{y} &=\left[\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\right)_{y}\right]=\left[\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\right)_{y}\right]_{r}\left(\frac{\partial \theta}{\partial x}\right)_{y} \\\ &=\left\\{\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}\left[-\frac{\sin \theta}{r}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial \theta}\right)_{r}\right]\right\\}\left(-\frac{\sin \theta}{r}\right) \\ &=\frac{\sin \theta \cos \theta}{r^{2}}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial \theta}\right)_{r}+\frac{\sin ^{2} \theta}{r^{2}}\left(\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial \theta^{2}}\right)_{r}(r \text { fixed }) \end{aligned} \\] Similarly, show that \\[ \left(\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial y^{2}}\right)_{x}=-\frac{\sin \theta \cos \theta}{r^{2}}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial \theta}\right)_{r}+\frac{\cos ^{2} \theta}{r^{2}}\left(\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial \theta^{2}}\right)_{r}(r \text { fixed }) \\] and that \\[ \nabla^{2} f=\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial x^{2}}+\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial y^{2}} \rightarrow \frac{1}{r^{2}}\left(\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial \theta^{2}}\right)_{r} \quad(r \text { fixed }) \\] Now show that the Schrödinger equation for a particle of mass \(m\) constrained to move on a circle of radius \(r\) is (see Problem \(3-28\) ) \\[ -\frac{\hbar^{2}}{2 I} \frac{\partial^{2} \psi(\theta)}{\partial \theta^{2}}=E \psi(\theta) \quad 0 \leq \theta \leq 2 \pi \\] where \(I=m r^{2}\) is the moment of inertia.

Verify that \(x(t)=C \sin (\omega t+\phi)\) is a solution to Newton's equation for a harmonic oscillator.

The general solution for the classical harmonic oscillator is \(x(t)=C \sin (\omega t+\phi) .\) Show that the displacement oscillates between \(+C\) and \(-C\) with a frequency \(\omega\) radian \(\cdot \mathrm{s}^{-1}\) or \(v=\omega / 2 \pi\) cycle \(\cdot \mathrm{s}^{-1} .\) What is the period of the oscillations; that is, how long does it take to undergo one cycle?

To normalize the harmonic-oscillator wave functions and calculate various expectation values, we must be able to evaluate integrals of the form \\[ I_{v}(a)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x^{2 v} e^{-a x^{2}} d x \quad v=0,1,2, \dots \\] We can simply either look them up in a table of integrals or continue this problem. First, show that \\[ I_{v}(a)=2 \int_{0}^{\infty} x^{2 v} e^{-a x^{2}} d x \\] The case \(v=0\) can be handled by the following trick. Show that the square of \(I_{0}(a)\) can be written in the form \\[ I_{0}^{2}(a)=4 \int_{0}^{\infty} \int_{0}^{\infty} d x d y e^{-a\left(x^{2}+y^{2}\right)} \\] Now convert to plane polar coordinates, letting \\[ r^{2}=x^{2}+y^{2} \quad \text { and } \quad d x d y=r d r d \theta \\] Show that the appropriate limits of integration are \(0 \leq r<\infty\) and \(0 \leq \theta \leq \pi / 2\) and that \\[ I_{0}^{2}(a)=4 \int_{0}^{\pi / 2} d \theta \int_{0}^{\infty} d r r e^{-a r^{2}} \\] which is elementary and gives \\[ I_{0}^{2}(a)=4 \cdot \frac{\pi}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2 a}=\frac{\pi}{a} \\] or that \\[ I_{0}(a)=\left(\frac{\pi}{a}\right)^{1 / 2} \\] Now prove that the \(I_{v}(a)\) may be obtained by repeated differentiation of \(I_{0}(a)\) with respect to \(a\) and, in particular, that \\[ \frac{d^{v} I_{0}(a)}{d a^{v}}=(-1)^{v} I_{v}(a) \\] Use this result and the fact that \(I_{0}(a)=(\pi / a)^{1 / 2}\) to generate \(I_{1}(a), I_{2}(a),\) and so forth.

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